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General Practice Flashcards

7 cards from real NAVLE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 General Practice flashcards as text

  1. A 3-year-old Labrador Retriever ingested approximately 6 mg/kg of acetaminophen 2 hours ago. It is asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate treatment?

    Answer: N-acetylcysteine and supportive care

    N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione stores and is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity; it should be combined with supportive care even in an asymptomatic patient presenting within 4 hours of ingestion.

  2. A 6-year-old indoor-outdoor cat presents with a 2 cm subcutaneous mass over the interscapular region that appeared 3 months after vaccination. Histopathology shows a high-grade spindle cell tumor with inflammation at the periphery. The diagnosis is:

    Answer: Feline injection-site sarcoma (FISS)

    Feline injection-site sarcoma is an aggressive high-grade spindle cell tumor arising at vaccination or injection sites, characterized by peripheral inflammation and a high recurrence rate after excision.

  3. An alpaca presents with progressive weight loss, bottle jaw, and anemia. Fecal flotation reveals strongyle-type eggs. Which anthelmintic class is most commonly used as first-line therapy in camelids with suspected Haemonchus?

    Answer: Macrocyclic lactones (e.g., ivermectin)

    Macrocyclic lactones such as ivermectin are commonly used first-line in camelids for Haemonchus contortus, though resistance monitoring via fecal egg count reduction tests is recommended.

  4. A 5-year-old dog presents with peracute collapse, pale mucous membranes, and abdominal distension. FAST ultrasound reveals free abdominal fluid and a splenic mass. PCV is 18%. Which statement is most accurate regarding the splenic mass?

    Answer: Approximately 50% of splenic masses in dogs are malignant (hemangiosarcoma)

    In dogs with splenic masses and hemoabdomen, approximately 50% are hemangiosarcoma (malignant), 25% are other malignancies, and only 25% are benign nodular hyperplasia or hematoma.

  5. A 10-day-old foal presents with hypopyon, corneal vascularization, and joint effusion in the right tarsus. The most likely underlying cause is:

    Answer: Failure of passive transfer leading to septicemia

    Septicemia secondary to failure of passive transfer is the leading cause of uveitis and septic arthritis in neonatal foals, as bacteria seed synovial and ocular tissues hematogenously.

  6. A dog is diagnosed with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). Which finding on the CBC is most specific for confirming immune-mediated destruction?

    Answer: Spherocytosis on blood smear

    Spherocytes, which lack the normal biconcave shape due to partial phagocytosis of antibody-coated membrane by macrophages, are the most specific morphologic finding for IMHA.

  7. A poultry flock develops acute respiratory distress, cyanosis of the comb and wattles, and hemorrhagic tracheitis with 40% mortality over 5 days. Which disease is most consistent with these findings?

    Answer: Infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT)

    Infectious laryngotracheitis, caused by Gallid alphaherpesvirus 1, presents with severe hemorrhagic tracheitis, bloody mucus, gasping, and high mortality in affected flocks.