Feline Internal Medicine Flashcards
7 cards from real NAVLE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Feline Internal Medicine flashcards as text
A 10-year-old DSH cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a palpable ventral neck mass. Serum T4 is 8.2 µg/dL (normal 0.8–4.0). Which cardiac abnormality is most commonly associated with this condition?
Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Hyperthyroidism in cats most commonly causes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy due to the chronotropic and inotropic effects of excess thyroid hormone.
A cat with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 3 is found to have a blood pressure of 195/130 mmHg. Which antihypertensive is considered first-line therapy in cats?
Answer: Amlodipine
Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is the first-line antihypertensive in cats due to its efficacy and tolerability.
A 7-year-old cat presents with icterus, anemia, and splenomegaly. Blood smear shows intraerythrocytic organisms. Which organism is most likely responsible?
Answer: Mycoplasma haemofelis
Mycoplasma haemofelis (formerly Haemobartonella felis) is the most common cause of feline infectious anemia, attaching to the surface of red blood cells.
A cat is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which insulin type is currently recommended as first-line therapy in cats?
Answer: Glargine insulin (long-acting)
Glargine (insulin glargine) is preferred in cats because its long, peakless action matches the feline glucose profile and facilitates diabetic remission.
Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) wet form is characterized by accumulation of effusion. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with FIP effusion?
Answer: High protein (>3.5 g/dL) with low cellularity and low albumin:globulin ratio
FIP effusion is a high-protein (>3.5 g/dL) modified transudate with low cellularity and a low albumin:globulin ratio (<0.4), reflecting the vasculitis-driven protein leak.
A cat presents with acute onset of hindlimb paralysis, cold limbs, and absent femoral pulses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Aortic thromboembolism
Aortic thromboembolism (saddle thrombus) classically presents in cats with acute hindlimb paresis/paralysis, cold extremities, and absent femoral pulses, often secondary to cardiomyopathy.
A 12-year-old cat with weight loss, diarrhea, and palpable intestinal thickening has a serum cobalamin of 145 ng/L (normal >290). Which diagnosis is most consistent?
Answer: Small cell (low-grade) lymphoma
Small cell (low-grade) alimentary lymphoma is the most common feline intestinal tumor and frequently causes hypocobalaminemia due to ileal involvement impairing B12 absorption.