Equine Surgery and Lameness Flashcards

A 6-year-old Standardbred pacer develops progressive bilateral hindlimb ataxia and weakness that worsens going downhill. Cervical radiographs show vertebral canal stenosis at C4-C5. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (Wobbler syndrome)

Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (Wobbler syndrome) presents with progressive spinal cord compression causing symmetric ataxia and weakness, confirmed by vertebral canal stenosis on radiographs.

An 8-year-old Arabian mare undergoes ovariectomy via flank laparotomy. On post-op day 2, she develops acute abdominal pain and pyrexia. Abdominocentesis reveals yellow-tinged fluid with a total protein of 4.5 g/dL and WBC of 90,000 cells/μL. What is the most likely complication?

Answer: Peritonitis secondary to intestinal contamination or pedicle infection

Markedly elevated peritoneal fluid protein and WBC with fever and pain indicate septic peritonitis, a serious complication of flank ovariectomy typically due to contamination or pedicle infection.

Radiographs of a 4-year-old Warmblood show osteochondral fragments at the dorsal aspect of the proximal interphalangeal (pastern) joint. The horse has mild lameness improved by intra-articular analgesia. What is the recommended treatment?

Answer: Arthroscopic removal of osteochondral fragments

Osteochondral fragments at the pastern joint are best treated by arthroscopic removal, which provides the most reliable return to athletic function.

A horse presents with sudden onset severe hindlimb lameness and a palpable defect in the middle gluteal muscle. The horse had been exercising at speed just before onset. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: Exertional rhabdomyolysis with muscle tear (tying-up)

Acute muscle tear of the gluteal region with a palpable defect following high-intensity exercise is consistent with exertional rhabdomyolysis severe enough to cause myofibrillar disruption.

During exploratory laparotomy for colic, the surgeon identifies a section of small intestine that is dark purple-black in color with no palpable pulse in the mesenteric vasculature after 10 minutes of warm saline lavage. What is the appropriate surgical decision?

Answer: Perform resection and anastomosis of the non-viable segment

Non-viable intestine (no color change, no mesenteric pulse after warming) must be resected with end-to-end or side-to-side anastomosis to prevent endotoxemia and peritonitis.

Which of the following best describes the 'stacked' or 'wedge' effect seen radiographically in horses with palmar foot syndrome (navicular syndrome)?

Answer: Synovial invaginations (synovial fossae) that appear as lucent 'lollipop' shapes in the navicular bone

Synovial fossae (invaginations) in the navicular bone appear as round to oval radiolucencies on the flexor surface, often called 'lollipop' lesions, and are associated with navicular disease.

A 5-year-old Thoroughbred racehorse has a complete transverse fracture of the proximal sesamoid bone following a race. Which statement best describes the prognosis for return to racing?

Answer: Guarded to poor prognosis; most horses are retired from racing after this injury

Complete transverse fractures of the proximal sesamoid bone carry a guarded to poor prognosis for return to racing due to disruption of the suspensory apparatus and risk of fetlock hyperextension.