NASM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield NASM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the appropriate repetition range for the Hypertrophy phase (Phase 3) of the OPT model? → 6-12 reps
2. How many grams of protein per kilogram of body weight are generally recommended for active adults? → 1.2-2.0 g/kg
3. Which of the following best describes 'specificity' as a resistance training principle? → The body adapts specifically to the demands placed upon it (SAID principle)
4. Glycogen, the storage form of carbohydrate, is primarily stored in which two locations? → Liver and skeletal muscle
5. Which of the following best defines 'motor unit'? → A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
6. Lower crossed syndrome is characterized by which postural distortion? → Anterior pelvic tilt with increased lumbar lordosis
7. What NASM term describes the phenomenon where synergist muscles compensate for an underactive or inhibited prime mover? → Synergistic dominance
8. The 'all-or-none' principle applies to which structure during muscle contraction? → A single motor unit
9. A motor unit consists of which two components? → A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
10. How can an exercise leader help a client on their fitness journey? → The exercise leader can set a good example of a balanced approach to fitness
11. During the overhead squat assessment, the client's feet turn outward. Which muscles are most likely overactive? → Lateral gastrocnemius and biceps femoris (short head)
12. Which phase of the OPT model is most appropriate for an athlete preparing for explosive sport performance? → Phase 5 Power
13. What is annual planning in periodization commonly called? → Macrocycle
14. Which assessment result would most strongly indicate a client should remain in Stabilization-level training? → Poor postural control and movement compensations
15. Which plane of motion divides the body into left and right halves? → Sagittal plane
16. Shoulder elevation during the pushing or pulling assessment suggests overactivity in which muscles? → Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, and sternocleidomastoid
17. What is the general daily protein recommendation range NASM cites for active individuals? → 1.2-2.0 g/kg
18. Which training block within the OPT model contains the Power phase? → Power block
19. During the subjective portion of an assessment, which document gathers a client's medical history, lifestyle, and occupation? → Health history questionnaire
20. Why is proper hydration important during exercise? → It regulates body temperature and supports performance
21. In lower crossed syndrome, which muscles are typically overactive? → Hip flexors and erector spinae
22. Why should a personal trainer obtain consent before instructing a client? → It improves the trainer-client relationship by reducing the imposing image of the trainer
23. What does the acronym SMART stand for when setting fitness goals? → Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
24. Hydrostatic weighing estimates body composition based on which principle? → Body density via water displacement
25. Which is an appropriate way for a NASM CPT to earn CEUs? → Completing NASM-approved courses, workshops, or conferences
26. Before beginning training with a new client, obtaining a PAR-Q helps the trainer: → Screen for health risks that may require medical clearance
27. Self-myofascial release (SMR) using a foam roller is recommended to be held on a tender spot for approximately: → 30–90 seconds until discomfort reduces
28. What does the RPE scale measure in cardiorespiratory training? → Rate of perceived exertion (subjective intensity)
29. Which type of resistance training adaptation occurs FIRST in a beginner during the initial weeks of training? → Neural adaptations
30. The Valsalva maneuver during heavy lifting can be dangerous primarily because it can cause what? → A sharp rise in blood pressure