MS-102 Cheat Sheet 2026

The 26 highest-yield MS-102 facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. In which section of an Intune device compliance policy can an administrator specify minimum and maximum allowed operating system versions for enrolled devices? → Device properties
2. How can administrators manage Microsoft 365 licenses? → By using the Microsoft 365 admin center
3. What does Microsoft 365 Service Health Dashboard provide? → Real-time service status and incident management
4. What is the purpose of the Enrollment Status Page (ESP) in a Windows Autopilot deployment? → To block device access until required apps and policies are fully applied
5. Which tool is used for user identity management in Microsoft 365? → Azure Active Directory
6. What role does Microsoft 365 Compliance Center play? → It ensures compliance with data protection regulations
7. What is the purpose of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? → To secure login processes with more than one factor
8. Which Intune feature allows administrators to deploy traditional Win32 applications (.exe or .msi) to Windows 10/11 managed devices? → Win32 app deployment via the Intune Management Extension (IME)
9. What is the purpose of conditional access in Microsoft 365? → To enforce security policies and access control
10. What is the default maximum number of devices a single user can enroll in Microsoft Intune? → 5
11. What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 tenant? → To manage user identities and access control
12. Which enrollment method allows Windows 10/11 devices to be joined to Azure AD and automatically enrolled in Intune during the out-of-box experience (OOBE)? → Windows Autopilot
13. Which tool is used to manage user passwords in Microsoft 365? → Azure Active Directory
14. What is the key difference between Intune App Protection Policies (APP/MAM) and device compliance policies? → APP protects organizational data within apps without requiring device enrollment in Intune
15. What does the Intune 'Retire' remote action do to a managed device? → Removes corporate data and unenrolls the device while leaving personal data intact
16. Which of the following is part of Microsoft 365 tenant management? → User identity and access management
17. What tool is commonly used to migrate emails to Microsoft 365? → Exchange Online Migration Tool
18. What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 security compliance center? → To protect and manage organization’s data
19. What is the purpose of the Microsoft 365 Deployment Center? → To deploy and manage Microsoft 365 apps and services
20. Which of the following is a key characteristic of Microsoft Entra Cloud Sync that differentiates it from the traditional Microsoft Entra Connect Sync? → It uses lightweight, on-premises agents with configuration managed in the cloud.
21. Which feature does the Microsoft 365 Security Center provide? → Threat protection and incident management
22. What is Microsoft 365’s default security feature for protecting emails? → Microsoft Defender for Office 365
23. What happens to a device's compliance status in Intune when the device fails to check in before the configured compliance grace period expires? → The device is marked as Not compliant
24. What is the main purpose of Microsoft 365 Identity and Access Management? → To control user access and manage identities
25. What information must be collected from a device and uploaded to Intune or the Microsoft 365 admin center in order to register it for Windows Autopilot? → Device serial number and hardware hash
26. What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 Security & Compliance Center? → To configure compliance and security policies