Microsoft 365 Identity and Services (MS-100) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What role does active listening play in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes (Correct answer)
It means staying silent
It is only for counseling professionals
It wastes time

Correct answer: It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes represents the professional standard for communication in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 2: What is the benefit of interdisciplinary collaboration in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

It is only for complex projects
It brings diverse expertise and perspectives that improve outcomes and innovation (Correct answer)
It creates confusion
It slows down decision making

Correct answer: It brings diverse expertise and perspectives that improve outcomes and innovation

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. It brings diverse expertise and perspectives that improve outcomes and innovation represents the professional standard for practical in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 3: An administrator needs to provide just-in-time privileged access to Azure resources with approval workflows. Which Azure AD feature should they use?

Azure AD Roles
Privileged Identity Management (PIM) (Correct answer)
Access Reviews
Entitlement Management

Correct answer: Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

PIM provides just-in-time privileged access with approval workflows, time-limited assignments, and audit trails for Azure AD and Azure resources.

Question 4: TPT Limited has one Active Directory domain and two Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants on its network. TPT Limited's administrator, Robert, is working on directory synchronization for both Azure AD tenants. Some Active Directory users will be present in each tenant. What should the solution for the next directory synchronization contain?

Deploy two Azure AD Connect servers, and then utilize organizational unit (OU)-based filtering to filter the users for each tenant. (Correct answer)
Deploy one Azure AD Connect server, and then use organizational unit (OU)-based filtering to filter the users for each tenant.
Deploy one Azure AD Connect server, and then create two sync groups.
Deploy one Azure AD Connect server, and then use domain-based filtering to filter the users for each tenant.

Correct answer: Deploy two Azure AD Connect servers, and then utilize organizational unit (OU)-based filtering to filter the users for each tenant.

When synchronizing a single on-premises Active Directory domain with two separate Azure AD tenants, Microsoft's recommended architecture is to deploy two distinct Azure AD Connect servers. Each server should be configured to synchronize with one specific Azure AD tenant. To ensure that only the correct users are synchronized to each tenant, organizational unit (OU)-based filtering should be utilized on each Azure AD Connect server.

Question 5: Which tool should be used to diagnose Azure AD Connect synchronization errors, such as objects not appearing in Azure AD?

All of the above (Correct answer)
Azure AD Connect Health portal
Azure AD Connect wizard's troubleshoot task
Synchronization Service Manager

Correct answer: All of the above

All three tools — the troubleshoot task in the wizard, Synchronization Service Manager for operational errors, and Connect Health for health monitoring — are used together to diagnose sync issues.

Question 6: Which Microsoft 365 admin center report helps an administrator identify inactive users who still hold active licenses?

Microsoft 365 Usage reports > User activity (Correct answer)
Message Center > Planned changes
Azure AD Sign-in logs > Risky sign-ins
Secure Score recommendations

Correct answer: Microsoft 365 Usage reports > User activity

Microsoft 365 Usage reports show per-user activity across services, helping identify inactive users consuming licenses.

Question 7: What role does data analytics play in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

It is only for IT professionals
It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data (Correct answer)
It replaces professional judgment
It creates unnecessary complexity

Correct answer: It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data represents the professional standard for technology in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 8: Which Microsoft 365 admin role provides full, unrestricted access to all administrative features and services in a tenant?

Global Administrator (Correct answer)
Exchange Administrator
Global Reader
Billing Administrator

Correct answer: Global Administrator

The Global Administrator role has unrestricted access to all administrative features across Microsoft 365 and Azure AD services.

Question 9: Why is evidence-based practice important in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services?

It is a theoretical concept only
It only applies to academic settings
It replaces experience
It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes represents the professional standard for research in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 10: How do MS-100 professionals transfer knowledge from training to practice?

Knowledge transfers automatically
By passing the certification exam only
Training and practice are unrelated
Through supervised practice, mentoring, gradual independence, and ongoing feedback (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Through supervised practice, mentoring, gradual independence, and ongoing feedback

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Through supervised practice, mentoring, gradual independence, and ongoing feedback represents the professional standard for practical in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 11: What is the purpose of the Azure AD Application Proxy?

Enabling B2B collaboration with partner tenants
Providing SSO to SaaS applications
Publishing on-premises web apps securely to external users (Correct answer)
Managing API permissions for registered apps

Correct answer: Publishing on-premises web apps securely to external users

Azure AD Application Proxy allows remote users to access on-premises web applications securely without requiring a VPN or DMZ.

Question 12: What happens to a synchronized user account in Azure AD when the corresponding on-premises Active Directory account is deleted?

The Azure AD account is soft-deleted and placed in the recycle bin for 30 days (Correct answer)
The Azure AD account is immediately deleted
The Azure AD account is converted to a cloud-only account
Nothing — the Azure AD account remains active

Correct answer: The Azure AD account is soft-deleted and placed in the recycle bin for 30 days

When an on-premises AD account is deleted, Azure AD Connect exports the deletion to Azure AD, which soft-deletes the account and retains it in the recycle bin for 30 days.

Question 13: Your company's Microsoft 365 subscription is your responsibility. The corporation implements a security policy requiring DLP incident reports to be provided to legal department users automatically. You must set up the reports to be distributed as frequently as possible via email. Which of the following options should you choose?

Monthly
Annually
Weekly (Correct answer)
Quarterly

Correct answer: Weekly

When configuring Data Loss Prevention (DLP) incident reports in Microsoft 365 to be automatically provided to users via email, the most frequent distribution option available is weekly. While DLP incidents can be monitored in real-time within the compliance center, the scheduled email reports for these incidents are typically limited to a weekly cadence.

Question 14: How should an MS-100 professional respond to a compliance violation?

Conceal it if minor
Blame the regulatory framework
Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions (Correct answer)
Wait for an external audit to find it

Correct answer: Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions represents the professional standard for regulatory in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 15: What is a corrective action in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services quality systems?

Ignoring minor issues
Temporary workarounds only
Blaming individuals for errors
A systematic response to eliminate the cause of a detected nonconformity and prevent recurrence (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A systematic response to eliminate the cause of a detected nonconformity and prevent recurrence

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. A systematic response to eliminate the cause of a detected nonconformity and prevent recurrence represents the professional standard for quality in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 16: What is reflective practice in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services professional development?

Only reflecting on successes
Systematically examining experiences to gain insight and improve future practice (Correct answer)
Avoiding past mistakes
Writing personal diaries

Correct answer: Systematically examining experiences to gain insight and improve future practice

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Systematically examining experiences to gain insight and improve future practice represents the professional standard for practical in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 17: How has digital technology transformed MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

It has enhanced data collection, analysis, communication, and operational efficiency (Correct answer)
It has replaced all traditional methods
It only affects large organizations
It has had no impact

Correct answer: It has enhanced data collection, analysis, communication, and operational efficiency

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. It has enhanced data collection, analysis, communication, and operational efficiency represents the professional standard for technology in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 18: An organization wants to ensure that when an employee leaves, their Microsoft 365 access is revoked promptly. Which process reflects this professional standard?

Integrate HR offboarding with Azure AD user lifecycle management (Correct answer)
Rely on the user to report their own departure
Schedule a weekly review of departed users
Disable the account only after the user requests it

Correct answer: Integrate HR offboarding with Azure AD user lifecycle management

Integrating HR offboarding with Azure AD lifecycle management ensures immediate access revocation when an employee departs.

Question 19: What is the purpose of the Microsoft 365 Message Center in the admin center?

To track phishing reports from users
To notify admins of upcoming service changes and new features (Correct answer)
To manage user message rules in Exchange Online
To send email announcements to all users

Correct answer: To notify admins of upcoming service changes and new features

The Message Center publishes planned changes, new features, and actionable advisories that admins need to be aware of.

Question 20: How should MS-100 professionals evaluate new technology tools?

Wait until competitors adopt first
Adopt all new technology immediately
Avoid all new technology
Assess functionality, reliability, security, cost-effectiveness, and alignment with professional needs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assess functionality, reliability, security, cost-effectiveness, and alignment with professional needs

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Assess functionality, reliability, security, cost-effectiveness, and alignment with professional needs represents the professional standard for technology in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 21: How do MS-100 professionals maintain digital competency?

Skills from initial training are sufficient
Through ongoing training, practice with new tools, and staying current with technological advances (Correct answer)
Digital skills are not required
By hiring IT support for all tasks

Correct answer: Through ongoing training, practice with new tools, and staying current with technological advances

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Through ongoing training, practice with new tools, and staying current with technological advances represents the professional standard for technology in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 22: Your organization requires that all Microsoft 365 service health issues be tracked and communicated to stakeholders. Which admin center feature supports this?

Service Health dashboard (Correct answer)
Microsoft Secure Score
Message Center
Compliance Manager

Correct answer: Service Health dashboard

The Service Health dashboard in the Microsoft 365 admin center shows current and historical service incidents and advisories.

Question 23: A Teams meeting policy is configured with 'Anonymous users can join a meeting' set to Off. What is the result?

Meeting lobby is disabled
External federated users cannot join
Only users in the same organization can join
Users without a Microsoft account cannot join (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Users without a Microsoft account cannot join

When anonymous join is disabled, users who are not authenticated with any Microsoft account (anonymous participants) are blocked from joining Teams meetings.

Question 24: A company wants to allow external partners to access specific SharePoint sites without creating guest accounts in Azure AD. Which feature enables this?

Entitlement Management with connected organizations (Correct answer)
Azure AD B2C
Azure AD External Identities
Azure AD B2B collaboration

Correct answer: Entitlement Management with connected organizations

Entitlement Management with connected organizations allows external partners to request access to resources using their own organizational credentials.

Question 25: Which type of Azure AD group can be assigned Microsoft 365 licenses directly?

Security groups only
Microsoft 365 groups only
Both Security and Microsoft 365 groups (Correct answer)
Distribution groups only

Correct answer: Both Security and Microsoft 365 groups

Both Security groups and Microsoft 365 groups support group-based license assignment in Azure AD.

Question 26: How do MS-100 professionals evaluate research quality?

By assessing methodology, sample size, peer review status, and relevance to practice (Correct answer)
By the reputation of the author only
Research quality cannot be evaluated
By publication date only

Correct answer: By assessing methodology, sample size, peer review status, and relevance to practice

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. By assessing methodology, sample size, peer review status, and relevance to practice represents the professional standard for research in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 27: Why is documentation important in MS-100 risk management?

It creates an audit trail, supports decision-making, and demonstrates due diligence (Correct answer)
It slows down operations
It is optional paperwork
It only benefits legal teams

Correct answer: It creates an audit trail, supports decision-making, and demonstrates due diligence

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. It creates an audit trail, supports decision-making, and demonstrates due diligence represents the professional standard for risk management in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 28: What is Microsoft FastTrack in the context of Microsoft 365?

A CDN service for Office application delivery
A Microsoft-provided benefit offering onboarding guidance for eligible customers (Correct answer)
A performance acceleration service for SharePoint Online
A rapid email migration tool for Exchange cutover

Correct answer: A Microsoft-provided benefit offering onboarding guidance for eligible customers

FastTrack is a Microsoft benefit that provides eligible customers with guidance, best practices, and resources to help successfully deploy and adopt Microsoft 365 services.

Question 29: How should an MS-100 professional approach a novel situation not covered by standard procedures?

Improvise without documentation
Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions (Correct answer)
Refuse to proceed
Follow the closest standard procedure exactly

Correct answer: Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions represents the professional standard for practical in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 30: How does a MS-100 professional communicate risks to stakeholders?

By minimizing all risks
Using technical jargon only
By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions (Correct answer)
Through annual reports only

Correct answer: By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions represents the professional standard for risk management in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 31: What Azure AD feature enables you to create automatic group membership based on user attribute values such as department or job title?

Access packages
Nested groups
Dynamic groups (Correct answer)
Group writeback

Correct answer: Dynamic groups

Dynamic groups use membership rules based on user attributes like department or job title to automatically add or remove members.

Question 32: A Microsoft 365 tenant administrator wants to see which apps in the organization are accessing Microsoft 365 data. Which tool provides this visibility?

Azure AD App Registrations
Microsoft Secure Score
Compliance Manager
Cloud App Security (Defender for Cloud Apps) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cloud App Security (Defender for Cloud Apps)

Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps (formerly Cloud App Security) provides app discovery and visibility into which applications are accessing Microsoft 365 data.

Question 33: An admin is setting up Microsoft 365 for a new organization and must verify the custom domain before it can be used for email. What record type is typically used for domain verification?

SRV record
MX record
CNAME record
TXT record (Correct answer)

Correct answer: TXT record

Microsoft 365 typically uses a TXT record added to the domain's DNS zone to verify domain ownership.

Question 34: An admin wants to ensure that only licensed users can send email through Exchange Online. Which approach enforces this standard?

Configure a retention policy on the mailbox
Enable DKIM for the tenant domain
Apply a mail flow rule blocking unlicensed users
Assign Exchange Online licenses only to users who need email (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assign Exchange Online licenses only to users who need email

Assigning Exchange Online licenses only to users who require email access is the correct way to control who can use the mail service.

Question 35: What is the purpose of a quality audit in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

To satisfy external requirements only
To systematically evaluate processes against standards and identify improvement opportunities (Correct answer)
To reduce staffing
To find fault with employees

Correct answer: To systematically evaluate processes against standards and identify improvement opportunities

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. To systematically evaluate processes against standards and identify improvement opportunities represents the professional standard for quality in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 36: You've been tasked with determining which licenses to purchase once your organization migrates their on-premises email service to Microsoft Exchange Online. You have been notified that licenses purchased for the IT and Managers groups of the organization should allow for the following: Privileged Identity Management in Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) is required for the IT group. Conditional access to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) should be available to both the IT and Managers groups. You must ensure that license fees are maintained to a bare minimum. Which two of the following choices do you think are the best? (Select two.)

Microsoft 365 E3 licenses should be purchased for the IT team members.
For the Managers group, you should purchase Microsoft 365 E5 licenses.
For the Managers group, you should acquire Microsoft 365 E3 licenses. (Correct answer)
For the Managers group, you should acquire Microsoft 365 E5 licenses. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: For the Managers group, you should acquire Microsoft 365 E3 licenses.

The Managers group requires Conditional Access, which is a feature included in Azure AD Premium P1. Microsoft 365 E3 licenses provide Azure AD Premium P1, making it a suitable and cost-effective choice for this group. While Microsoft 365 E5 also includes Conditional Access (via Azure AD Premium P2), it offers additional features like Privileged Identity Management (PIM) that are not required by the Managers group, making E3 the more economical option to meet the 'bare minimum' license fee constraint.

Question 37: What is the benefit of standardized digital reporting in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

It replaces professional communication
It limits creativity
It is only needed for government work
It ensures consistency, enables comparison, and facilitates regulatory compliance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It ensures consistency, enables comparison, and facilitates regulatory compliance

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. It ensures consistency, enables comparison, and facilitates regulatory compliance represents the professional standard for technology in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 38: Which Microsoft 365 tool provides administrators with a unified view of service health, incidents, and advisories across all Microsoft 365 services?

Service Health Dashboard in the admin center (Correct answer)
Microsoft 365 Defender portal
Compliance Manager
Microsoft Secure Score

Correct answer: Service Health Dashboard in the admin center

The Service Health Dashboard in the Microsoft 365 admin center shows real-time status, active incidents, and historical advisories for all M365 services.

Question 39: What is the importance of data security in MS-100 digital applications?

Only financial data needs protection
Security is unnecessary for professional data
Security slows down work
Protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, breaches, and loss is essential (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, breaches, and loss is essential

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, breaches, and loss is essential represents the professional standard for technology in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 40: What is the purpose of the IdFix tool in a hybrid Microsoft 365 deployment?

Identifying and remediating Active Directory attribute errors before synchronization (Correct answer)
Fixing Azure AD Conditional Access policy misconfigurations
Auditing hybrid Azure AD join configurations
Testing AD FS claims rules

Correct answer: Identifying and remediating Active Directory attribute errors before synchronization

IdFix scans on-premises Active Directory for attribute formatting errors (like invalid UPNs, duplicate proxy addresses) that would cause synchronization failures with Azure AD.

Question 41: Which Microsoft 365 tool provides a centralized view of an organization's security posture and recommends improvement actions?

Microsoft Compliance Manager
Defender for Endpoint
Azure Security Center
Microsoft Secure Score (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Microsoft Secure Score

Microsoft Secure Score measures an organization's security posture and provides prioritized recommendations to improve it.

Question 42: Microsoft Exchange Online is included in your Microsoft 365 tenant. You've been given the duty of enabling calendar sharing with a partner company that also uses Microsoft 365. You must ensure that users in the partner organization have rapid access to each user's calendar. Which of the following is the best course of action for you?

Configure a conditional access policy via Exchange admin center. (Correct answer)
Run the Set-SPOSite cmdlet.
Using the Exchange admin center, configure the sharing options.
Configure a new organization relationship via Exchange admin center.

Correct answer: Configure a conditional access policy via Exchange admin center.

To enable calendar sharing with a partner company that also uses Microsoft 365 and ensure rapid access to each user's calendar, the best course of action is to configure a new organization relationship. This setting, found in the Exchange admin center, allows for controlled sharing of free/busy information and other calendar details between the two Microsoft 365 tenants, providing seamless and efficient access for users in both organizations.

Question 43: An administrator must ensure that service accounts in Microsoft 365 are not used for interactive sign-ins. Which control enforces this?

Block sign-in on the account in Azure AD (Correct answer)
Assign them the Guest User role
Remove their Exchange mailbox
Disable their MFA registration

Correct answer: Block sign-in on the account in Azure AD

Blocking sign-in on a service account in Azure AD prevents interactive logins while allowing the account to function for automated tasks.

Question 44: Which Azure AD feature detects users whose credentials have been found in dark web breaches and flags them as high-risk?

Leaked credentials (Correct answer)
Malware-linked IP address
Anonymous IP address
Impossible travel

Correct answer: Leaked credentials

The Leaked credentials risk detection correlates Azure AD usernames and passwords against known breach databases to flag compromised accounts.

Question 45: What is a compliance management system in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

A structured framework of policies, procedures, and controls that ensure regulatory adherence (Correct answer)
A software application only
A government reporting requirement
An optional business tool

Correct answer: A structured framework of policies, procedures, and controls that ensure regulatory adherence

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. A structured framework of policies, procedures, and controls that ensure regulatory adherence represents the professional standard for regulatory in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 46: What is the primary purpose of regulatory compliance in MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice?

To benefit regulators only
To create bureaucratic burden
To protect public safety, ensure quality standards, and maintain professional accountability (Correct answer)
To limit competition

Correct answer: To protect public safety, ensure quality standards, and maintain professional accountability

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. To protect public safety, ensure quality standards, and maintain professional accountability represents the professional standard for regulatory in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 47: How should an MS-100 professional handle an outcome that differs from expectations?

Analyze contributing factors, document findings, and adjust approach based on lessons learned (Correct answer)
Repeat the same approach
Ignore the discrepancy
Blame external factors

Correct answer: Analyze contributing factors, document findings, and adjust approach based on lessons learned

This is fundamental to MS-100 - Microsoft 365 Identity and Services practice. Analyze contributing factors, document findings, and adjust approach based on lessons learned represents the professional standard for practical in the MS-100 certification framework.

Question 48: You have a Microsoft 365 tenant with an Environment1 Microsoft Power Platform environment. (default). A Microsoft Dataverse database is present in Environment 1. You create a user named User1 in the tenant. You give User1 a Microsoft Power Apps license. Which of the Environment1 security roles is immediately assigned to User1?

Environment maker
Delegate
System customizer (Correct answer)
None of the above

Correct answer: System customizer

When a user is created in a Microsoft 365 tenant and assigned a Microsoft Power Apps license, they are automatically assigned the 'System Customizer' security role in the default Microsoft Dataverse environment. This role grants them privileges to customize and create applications within Dataverse, enabling them to build and manage Power Apps solutions.

Question 49: Which Azure AD feature allows you to set expiration dates on Microsoft 365 groups to prevent unused groups from accumulating?

Entitlement Management
Group lifecycle policies (Correct answer)
Dynamic membership rules
Access Reviews

Correct answer: Group lifecycle policies

Group expiration policies in Azure AD automatically prompt owners to renew groups at defined intervals, deleting them if not renewed.

Question 50: Which Microsoft 365 admin center section should an admin use to purchase and assign additional licenses to users?

Billing > Purchase services (Correct answer)
Settings > Org settings
Reports > Usage
Setup > Domains

Correct answer: Billing > Purchase services

The Billing > Purchase services section in the Microsoft 365 admin center is used to buy and manage subscriptions and licenses.

Microsoft 365 Identity and Services (MS-100)

MS-100 validates skills in deploying and managing Microsoft 365 tenants, managing user identity and roles, managing access and authentication, and planning Microsoft 365 workloads and applications. It was retired July 31, 2023 and replaced by MS-102.

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