MPT Master of Physical Therapy 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient with a T6 complete spinal cord injury presents with autonomic dysreflexia. Which action is the FIRST priority?
- Administer antihypertensive medication
- Sit the patient upright and identify the noxious stimulus (Correct answer)
- Apply ice to the neck
- Contact the physician immediately
Correct answer: Sit the patient upright and identify the noxious stimulus
Sitting the patient upright lowers blood pressure by orthostatic effect while identifying and removing the triggering noxious stimulus is the first-line intervention for autonomic dysreflexia.
Question 2: During gait analysis, a patient demonstrates contralateral pelvic drop (Trendelenburg gait). Which muscle is most likely weak?
- Ipsilateral hip flexor
- Ipsilateral gluteus medius (Correct answer)
- Contralateral gluteus maximus
- Ipsilateral quadriceps
Correct answer: Ipsilateral gluteus medius
The ipsilateral gluteus medius stabilizes the pelvis during single-limb stance; weakness causes the contralateral pelvis to drop.
Question 3: Which outcome measure is MOST appropriate to assess balance confidence in community-dwelling older adults?
- Berg Balance Scale
- Activities-specific Balance Confidence Scale (ABC) (Correct answer)
- Timed Up and Go Test
- Functional Reach Test
Correct answer: Activities-specific Balance Confidence Scale (ABC)
The ABC Scale directly measures self-perceived confidence in performing daily activities without losing balance, making it the most appropriate for community-dwelling older adults.
Question 4: A therapist applies moist heat to reduce muscle spasm before exercise. This modality primarily acts via which mechanism?
- Increased nerve conduction velocity
- Reduced alpha motor neuron excitability via Golgi tendon organ activation (Correct answer)
- Decreased collagen extensibility
- Increased sympathetic vasoconstriction
Correct answer: Reduced alpha motor neuron excitability via Golgi tendon organ activation
Superficial heat reduces alpha motor neuron excitability partly through stimulation of Golgi tendon organs, decreasing muscle tone and spasm.
Question 5: Which manual therapy technique is classified as a Grade IV oscillation according to Maitland's grading system?
- Large-amplitude movement at the beginning of range
- Small-amplitude movement at the end of range (Correct answer)
- Large-amplitude movement through full range
- High-velocity thrust at end range
Correct answer: Small-amplitude movement at the end of range
Maitland Grade IV consists of small-amplitude oscillations performed at the end of the available range of motion.
Question 6: A PT is documenting under the SOAP format. Where should the patient's self-reported pain level and functional goals be recorded?
- Assessment
- Plan
- Subjective (Correct answer)
- Objective
Correct answer: Subjective
The Subjective section contains information reported by the patient, including pain ratings, symptoms, and personal goals.
Question 7: Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique involves alternating isotonic contractions of agonist and antagonist muscles?
- Contract-relax
- Hold-relax
- Rhythmic stabilization (Correct answer)
- Rhythmic initiation
Correct answer: Rhythmic stabilization
Rhythmic stabilization uses alternating isometric contractions of opposing muscles, while rhythmic initiation uses passive → active progression; however, agonist reversal/slow reversal uses alternating isotonic contractions of agonist and antagonist.
MPT Master of Physical Therapy 2
A patient with a T6 complete spinal cord injury presents with autonomic dysreflexia.
Which action is the FIRST priority?