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Mixed Deck — All MPT Topics Flashcards

100 cards from real MPT practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All MPT Topics flashcards as text
  1. During the stance phase of normal gait, the center of mass reaches its HIGHEST vertical position at which point?

    Answer: Mid-stance

    The center of mass reaches its highest vertical position during mid-stance when the body vaults over the supporting limb.

  2. A PT is documenting under the SOAP format. Where should the patient's self-reported pain level and functional goals be recorded?

    Answer: Subjective

    The Subjective section contains information reported by the patient, including pain ratings, symptoms, and personal goals.

  3. Which scale is commonly used to rate perceived exertion during cardiopulmonary rehabilitation?

    Answer: Borg RPE Scale

    The Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) Scale (6–20) allows patients to self-rate exercise intensity, aiding exercise prescription in cardiac rehab.

  4. The Intraclass Correlation Coefficient (ICC) is most appropriately used to assess:

    Answer: The reliability of continuous measurement data

    ICC quantifies reliability (test-retest or inter-rater) for continuous data, with values approaching 1.0 indicating excellent reliability.

  5. What is 'foot drop' and which nerve is most commonly affected?

    Answer: Inability to dorsiflex; common peroneal nerve

    Foot drop is the inability to dorsiflex the foot due to weakness of the tibialis anterior, most commonly caused by common peroneal nerve injury.

  6. Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?

    Answer: Phrenic nerve (C3-C5)

    The phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5) provides motor innervation to the diaphragm. The mnemonic 'C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphragm alive' is widely used.

  7. A patient presents with shoulder pain reproduced by the Hawkins-Kennedy test. This test most specifically assesses for:

    Answer: Subacromial impingement (supraspinatus or subacromial bursa compression)

    The Hawkins-Kennedy test (shoulder flexion to 90 degrees plus internal rotation) compresses the supraspinatus and subacromial bursa under the coracoacromial arch, reproducing impingement pain.

  8. A patient's resting heart rate is 95 bpm and target training zone is 60–80% of heart rate reserve using the Karvonen formula. If their maximum HR is 170 bpm, what is the lower training HR?

    Answer: 132 bpm

    HRR = 170 − 95 = 75; lower target = 95 + (0.60 × 75) = 95 + 45 = 140 bpm — wait, let me recalculate: 95 + 45 = 140... actually 95 + 0.60×75 = 95+45=140. The correct answer is 140 bpm (option B).

  9. Ober test assesses tightness of which structure?

    Answer: Iliotibial band and tensor fasciae latae

    Ober test assesses iliotibial band (ITB) and tensor fasciae latae (TFL) flexibility by testing whether the hip can adduct from a side-lying position with the knee flexed.

  10. Which of the following best describes 'abandonment' in the context of physical therapy practice?

    Answer: Unilaterally terminating the therapeutic relationship without adequate notice or referral while the patient still needs care

    Abandonment occurs when a PT unilaterally ends treatment without proper notice, transition planning, or referral when ongoing care is still medically necessary.

  11. Which type of cerebral palsy is characterized by fluctuating muscle tone with involuntary writhing movements?

    Answer: Athetoid/dyskinetic CP

    Dyskinetic (athetoid) CP involves damage to the basal ganglia, resulting in fluctuating tone, involuntary slow writhing (athetosis) or rapid jerky movements (chorea).

  12. Which grade of joint mobilization is used primarily for pain relief rather than increasing range of motion?

    Answer: Grade I and II

    Maitland Grades I and II are small-amplitude oscillations within range used primarily for neurophysiological pain relief.

  13. A patient refuses a prescribed PT intervention, stating they understand the risks. The PT proceeds anyway. This action violates which legal concept?

    Answer: Informed consent and patient autonomy

    Proceeding with treatment after a patient refuses violates the legal right to informed consent and patient autonomy, potentially constituting battery.

  14. What section of the SOAP format would the physical therapist assistant place the patient's short-term goals?

    Answer: Plan

    In the SOAP note format, the 'Plan' section (P) outlines the future course of action for the patient's care. This includes specific interventions, referrals, patient education, and both short-term and long-term goals for treatment. The goals are essential for guiding therapy, measuring progress, and ensuring a clear path forward for the patient's recovery.

  15. Which nerve is at risk during a posterior approach to the hip during total hip arthroplasty?

    Answer: Sciatic nerve

    The sciatic nerve runs posterior to the hip joint and is the structure most at risk of injury during posterior surgical approach for total hip arthroplasty.

  16. The PICO framework used in evidence-based practice stands for:

    Answer: Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome

    PICO (Patient/Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome) provides a structured format for formulating answerable clinical questions to guide efficient literature searches.

  17. The Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound (SMART) goal framework is used in PT to:

    Answer: Create clear, trackable functional goals with the patient and care team

    SMART goals in physical therapy provide clear, objective, time-bound targets that guide treatment planning and allow progress measurement.

  18. The SAID principle (Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands) states that:

    Answer: The body adapts specifically to the type, intensity, and mode of training imposed

    The SAID principle states that the body makes specific physiological adaptations in response to the specific demands placed on it. Training adaptations are specific to the movement pattern, speed, load, and energy system used.

  19. A pediatric patient demonstrates the inability to walk by 18 months of age. According to developmental milestones, which action is MOST appropriate?

    Answer: Immediately refer for neurological evaluation and PT assessment

    Typical independent walking is achieved by 12–15 months; failure to walk by 18 months is a developmental red flag requiring prompt neurological evaluation and physical therapy assessment.

  20. A patient with right-sided hemiplegia requires functional training. Which Bobath/NDT principle should guide facilitation?

    Answer: Inhibit abnormal tone and facilitate normal movement patterns

    Neurodevelopmental Treatment (NDT/Bobath) centers on inhibiting abnormal tone and reflexes while facilitating normal, coordinated movement patterns on the affected side.