MNT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield MNT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Retronychia is best described as: → Proximal embedding of the nail plate into the proximal fold due to upward growth
2. What action should be taken if a tool is dropped on the floor? → Disinfect the tool
3. Which type of microorganism is generally considered the most resistant to disinfection and requires sterilization to eliminate? → Bacterial endospores
4. Refusing to treat a patient based on their HIV-positive status, in the absence of a legitimate clinical contraindication, may violate: → The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act
5. How should a sharps container be disposed of when it is three-quarters full? → Sealed and disposed of as regulated medical waste through an approved contractor
6. What is the nail plate composed of? → Hard keratinized protein layers produced by the nail matrix
7. Green nail syndrome (Chloronychia) is caused by infection with: → Pseudomonas aeruginosa
8. What condition is characterized by thickened, discolored nails often caused by fungal infection? → Onychomycosis
9. What is the name of the crescent-shaped white area at the base of the nail plate? → Lunula
10. In a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathy, foot care education should emphasize: → Daily self-inspection of feet using a mirror
11. The nail growth rate in healthy fingernails averages approximately: → 3 mm per month
12. Conservative management of a Stage 1 ingrown toenail may include: → Cotton wool packing under the nail edge and warm saline soaks
13. Which technique is used to reduce nail thickness in hypertrophic nails? → Burring/grinding with a rotary tool
14. How often should tools and equipment be cleaned and disinfected? → After every client
15. What is the recommended approach for storing cleaned and disinfected implements between clients? → In a clean, covered container or sealed bag
16. Which material property is most important when selecting a nail brace for a very elderly patient with thin, brittle nails? → Flexibility and low adhesive surface stress to minimize risk of nail plate damage
17. The BS (Basis) brace system for ingrown nails requires the nail to be: → Clean, dry, and filed smooth on the dorsal surface to ensure adhesion
18. Which nail pathology is most commonly caused by repeated microtrauma to the nail matrix? → Habit-tic deformity (central nail dystrophy)
19. After a blood exposure incident during a nail service, the technician should first: → Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water
20. What is the purpose of a cuticle pusher? → Push back the cuticle
21. Leukonychia punctata refers to: → Small white spots within the nail plate
22. Which of the following wound findings is NOT considered a sign requiring immediate referral to a physician? → Mild pinkness confined to the immediate wound edges
23. How can a nail technician build trust during a client consultation? → Listening and offering advice
24. In the Spaulding classification, nail nippers used on intact skin are classified as: → Semi-critical items
25. Which emollient is most appropriate for post-treatment application on the nail folds? → Urea-based cream (10–25%)
26. A foot spa's whirlpool jets should be cleaned and disinfected: → After each client and thoroughly at the end of each day
27. How should nails be trimmed on a diabetic patient? → Straight across with smooth edges, avoiding cutting too short or into the corners
28. Which of the following should be done between client treatments? → Sanitize tools and surfaces
29. In distal lateral subungual onychomycosis (DLSO), the infection typically begins at the: → Hyponychium and distal nail bed
30. Which clinical sign distinguishes proximal subungual onychomycosis (PSO) from other types? → White opacity beginning at the proximal nail plate near the cuticle