MLPAO Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield MLPAO facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which condition is characterized by elevated serum bilirubin with a predominantly unconjugated (indirect) fraction? → Hemolytic anemia
2. What is the maximum acceptable cold ischemia time for a kidney transplant organ from declaration of brain death to organ reperfusion? → 12-36 hours
3. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 8.5 with no active bleeding. What is the recommended management? → Hold warfarin and administer oral vitamin K
4. A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is collected by lumbar puncture. What is the correct handling priority for this specimen in the laboratory? → Process immediately and never refrigerate
5. Which type of hemolysis on blood agar is produced by Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)? → Beta hemolysis (complete clearing)
6. During the total testing process, the majority of laboratory errors occur in which phase? → Pre-analytical phase
7. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'scope of practice' for a medical laboratory technologist in Ontario? → The activities authorized by the CMLTO for registered MLTs under Ontario legislation
8. Which principle underlies the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test for syphilis? → Indirect immunofluorescence after absorption of non-specific antibodies
9. Which of the following organs is part of both the endocrine and digestive systems, playing a dual role in producing hormones like insulin and digestive enzymes? → Pancreas
10. A patient is undergoing therapeutic phlebotomy for hereditary hemochromatosis. What is the standard volume of blood removed per session in adult patients? → 450-500 mL
11. The Weil-Felix test uses Proteus vulgaris antigens to detect antibodies in patients suspected of having: → Rickettsial infections
12. In immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) for serum protein analysis, a monoclonal band (M-protein) in the gamma region most commonly suggests: → A plasma cell dyscrasia such as multiple myeloma
13. According to CMLTO standards, which class of fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical equipment fires in a medical laboratory? → Class C
14. Which cell type is responsible for producing antibodies? → Plasma cells
15. Which serum marker is used to monitor methotrexate therapy toxicity? → Creatinine and liver enzymes
16. What anticoagulant is required for coagulation testing and why? → Sodium citrate 3.2%; it reversibly chelates calcium
17. Which hormone, produced by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans, promotes cellular glucose uptake? → Insulin
18. An electrocardiogram is accurately described as a test that: → Records the activity of the heart
19. For a glucose tolerance test (GTT), a 75g oral glucose challenge is administered. When is the post-load blood specimen collected for a standard 2-hour OGTT? → 120 minutes (2 hours) after glucose ingestion
20. What is the significance of Auer rods found on a peripheral blood smear? → They are pathognomonic for acute myeloid leukemia
21. When storing serum specimens for up to 7 days pending batch analysis, what is the appropriate storage temperature? → Refrigerator (2-8°C)
22. A patient returning from travel to sub-Saharan Africa presents with cyclic fevers. What should the laboratory perform? → Thick and thin blood smear examination for malaria parasites (STAT)
23. A urine microscopy shows hexagonal, colourless crystals in acidic urine from a young patient with recurrent kidney stones. What is the diagnosis? → Cystinuria with cystine crystals
24. What does a high serum ferritin level with low serum iron and low TIBC suggest? → Anemia of chronic disease
25. Which immunoglobulin class is the first to be produced during a primary immune response? → IgM
26. A patient with known anti-E requires 2 units of red blood cells for surgery. How should compatible blood be provided? → Select E-negative, ABO/Rh-compatible units and perform an antiglobulin crossmatch
27. A sample has a platelet count of 50 × 10⁹/L by impedance but the smear shows platelet clumps. What should the technologist do? → Recollect in a sodium citrate tube to rule out EDTA-dependent pseudothrombocytopenia
28. Which urine cast is most indicative of glomerulonephritis? → Red blood cell cast
29. In flow cytometry, CD4:CD8 ratio is used clinically to monitor patients with HIV. A significantly decreased ratio (below 1.0) indicates: → Progressive immunodeficiency due to CD4+ T cell depletion
30. Which risk is NOT associated with the following WHMIS symbol? → May cause environmental damage from fumes