MJDF Part 1 — Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A 28-year-old patient presents with symptoms of irreversible pulpitis in a mandibular first molar (LR6). During root canal irrigation with sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl), the patient suddenly experiences severe, sharp pain, followed by rapid swelling of the cheek. Which of the following is the most critical immediate action?

Stop irrigation, reassure the patient, and irrigate the canal with copious sterile saline or water. (Correct answer)
Complete the obturation of the canals immediately to seal the apex.
Administer an intramuscular injection of a corticosteroid to manage the inflammation.
Prescribe a course of systemic antibiotics and discharge the patient.

Correct answer: Stop irrigation, reassure the patient, and irrigate the canal with copious sterile saline or water.

This scenario describes a sodium hypochlorite accident where the irrigant has been extruded beyond the apex. The immediate priority is to stop the procedure and dilute the extruded NaOCl by flushing the canal with a neutral solution like sterile saline or water. [15, 33] This helps to limit further tissue damage. Reassurance and pain management (e.g., long-acting local anaesthetic) are also vital. [15, 29] Completing obturation is contraindicated, and while antibiotics may be prescribed later to prevent secondary infection, it is not the first action. [15] Corticosteroids are part of management but diluting the chemical irritant is the most critical first step.

Question 2: Which of the following best describes the 'working length' in root canal treatment?

The length of the root canal file required to reach the apical foramen exactly
The total length of the root from crown to apex as measured on a radiograph
The distance from a coronal reference point to the working terminus, typically 0.5-1mm short of the radiographic apex (Correct answer)
The depth of the pulp chamber measured from the occlusal surface

Correct answer: The distance from a coronal reference point to the working terminus, typically 0.5-1mm short of the radiographic apex

Working length is measured from a coronal reference point to the working terminus (typically 0.5-1mm short of the radiographic/anatomical apex) to avoid instrumentation beyond the apex into periapical tissues.

Question 3: Which of the following BEST describes 'plaque-induced gingivitis' according to the 2017 Classification?

Reversible inflammation of the gingiva without attachment loss, caused by dental plaque biofilm (Correct answer)
Irreversible inflammation of the periodontium with bone loss
Gingival inflammation occurring exclusively around dental implants
Inflammation of the gingiva associated with systemic disease only

Correct answer: Reversible inflammation of the gingiva without attachment loss, caused by dental plaque biofilm

Plaque-induced gingivitis is characterised by gingival inflammation (redness, swelling, BOP) caused by dental plaque biofilm — it is reversible with plaque removal, occurs without loss of attachment or alveolar bone, and may occur on a reduced periodontium.

Question 4: In endodontic treatment, what is the primary purpose of establishing and maintaining 'apical patency'?

To intentionally enlarge the apical foramen to create an apical 'blunderbuss'.
To ensure the final obturation material extrudes slightly, forming an apical puff.
To remove the smear layer from the entire canal wall using a large file.
To prevent the blockage of the apical constriction with dentine debris during instrumentation. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To prevent the blockage of the apical constriction with dentine debris during instrumentation.

Apical patency is defined as keeping the apical portion of the canal free of debris by passing a small, flexible file (e.g., a size 10 K-file) slightly beyond the working length. [3, 12, 19] Its main purpose is to prevent dentine shavings and necrotic tissue from being compacted at the apex, which could cause a blockage, loss of working length, or procedural errors like ledging. [3, 13] It does not aim to enlarge the foramen but to keep it clear, which also enhances irrigant delivery to the apical third. [3, 13]

Question 5: A dentist is carrying out an assessment of a new patient. Which of the following is considered a fundamental requirement of good record-keeping as outlined by the General Dental Council (GDC) and guidance from bodies like the FGDP(UK)?

Using a standardised digital template for all entries without exception.
Making and keeping accurate and contemporaneous patient records. (Correct answer)
Ensuring the notes are countersigned by a dental nurse.
Recording the patient's occupation and hobbies in detail.

Correct answer: Making and keeping accurate and contemporaneous patient records.

The General Dental Council's 'Standards for the Dental Team' mandates that dental professionals must make and keep accurate, complete, legible, and contemporaneous patient records. This is a core professional duty. While details like occupation can be relevant, they are not a fundamental requirement for all records. Countersigning is not a universal GDC requirement, and while templates are useful, their use must be appropriate and not compromise the accuracy of the record for the individual patient.

Question 6: What is the NHS dental contract system in England (from 2006), and what are UDAs (Units of Dental Activity)?

UDAs are a quality measurement tool unrelated to payment
UDAs measure the number of patients registered with a practice
The NHS dental contract in England (2006) pays dental practices based on Units of Dental Activity (UDAs): Band 1 = 1 UDA (examination, radiographs, scale and polish), Band 2 = 3 UDAs (fillings, extractions, root canal treatment), Band 3 = 12 UDAs (laboratory work — crowns, bridges, dentures). Practices are contracted to deliver a set number of UDAs per year (Correct answer)
The NHS pays dentists per hour of clinical time regardless of treatment provided

Correct answer: The NHS dental contract in England (2006) pays dental practices based on Units of Dental Activity (UDAs): Band 1 = 1 UDA (examination, radiographs, scale and polish), Band 2 = 3 UDAs (fillings, extractions, root canal treatment), Band 3 = 12 UDAs (laboratory work — crowns, bridges, dentures). Practices are contracted to deliver a set number of UDAs per year

The 2006 NHS dental contract in England replaced fee-per-item payments with Units of Dental Activity (UDAs). Each course of treatment falls into one of three bands with a fixed UDA value regardless of the complexity or number of procedures within that band. Band 1 (1 UDA): examination, diagnosis, preventive advice, radiographs, scale and polish. Band 2 (3 UDAs): all Band 1 plus fillings, extractions, RCT. Band 3 (12 UDAs): all Band 1 and 2 plus laboratory items. Criticisms include: no incentive for prevention, complex treatments undervalued, and perverse incentives around treatment banding.

Question 7: A 45-year-old patient is diagnosed with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis and apical periodontitis in a mandibular molar (LL6). A full pulpotomy is being considered as a vital pulp therapy option. Which finding would be a definitive contraindication for proceeding with a full pulpotomy?

The tooth has a mature, closed apex.
The patient reports spontaneous, lingering pain.
A periapical radiograph shows slight widening of the periodontal ligament space.
The pulp tissue continues to bleed uncontrollably after coronal pulp removal. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The pulp tissue continues to bleed uncontrollably after coronal pulp removal.

The success of vital pulp therapy, including pulpotomy, relies on removing the inflamed coronal tissue and placing a biomaterial onto healthy, vital radicular pulp tissue. [21, 28] The ability to achieve haemostasis (i.e., stop the bleeding) after a reasonable time (e.g., 5-10 minutes) is a key clinical indicator that the underlying radicular pulp is healthy enough to be preserved. [27, 28] Uncontrollable bleeding suggests that inflammation extends deep into the radicular pulp, making pulpotomy unlikely to succeed and indicating the need for a full pulpectomy (conventional root canal treatment). [27]

Question 8: A dentist prescribes a course of metronidazole 400mg three times daily for a patient with acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG). Which of the following pieces of advice is critical to give the patient to avoid a significant adverse reaction?

Avoid taking ibuprofen concurrently
Avoid consuming alcohol during treatment and for 48-72 hours after (Correct answer)
Avoid direct sunlight as the drug can cause photosensitivity
Take the medication with a glass of milk to prevent gastric upset

Correct answer: Avoid consuming alcohol during treatment and for 48-72 hours after

Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol. This reaction can include severe nausea, vomiting, flushing, tachycardia, and headache. The British National Formulary (BNF) and other UK guidelines strongly advise patients to avoid all alcohol during the course of metronidazole and for at least 48-72 hours after finishing the course.

Question 9: What is the mechanism of bone resorption in a dentigerous cyst?

Prostaglandins and cytokines (IL-1, TNF) from the cyst lining stimulate osteoclast activity (Correct answer)
Infection causing bone loss
Direct pressure alone
Cyst fluid pH causing demineralisation

Correct answer: Prostaglandins and cytokines (IL-1, TNF) from the cyst lining stimulate osteoclast activity

Cyst expansion is driven by osmotic pressure and prostaglandins/cytokines released by the cyst lining, which stimulate osteoclasts at the bone-cyst interface to resorb alveolar bone.

Question 10: A patient is prescribed systemic metronidazole as an adjunct to root surface debridement for Stage III Grade C periodontitis. Which of the following is the most important drug interaction to counsel this patient about?

Metronidazole interacts with alcohol (disulfiram-like reaction) and with warfarin (potentiates anticoagulant effect) (Correct answer)
Metronidazole requires avoidance of all dairy products during the course
Metronidazole causes photosensitivity and sun exposure should be avoided
Metronidazole reduces the efficacy of ibuprofen and should not be taken with NSAIDs

Correct answer: Metronidazole interacts with alcohol (disulfiram-like reaction) and with warfarin (potentiates anticoagulant effect)

Metronidazole has two critical interactions: it causes a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol (nausea, vomiting, flushing, palpitations) and it potentiates warfarin's anticoagulant effect, significantly increasing bleeding risk in anticoagulated patients.

Question 11: What is antimicrobial resistance and how can dental practitioners contribute to antimicrobial stewardship?

Antimicrobial resistance can be prevented by using antibiotics prophylactically for all procedures
Antimicrobial resistance is not relevant to dentistry
Antimicrobial resistance occurs when bacteria evolve mechanisms to survive antibiotic exposure; dental practitioners contribute to stewardship by prescribing antibiotics only when clinically indicated, choosing narrow-spectrum agents, using appropriate doses and durations, prioritising drainage/removal of the cause over antibiotics alone, and following evidence-based prescribing guidelines (FGDP/SDCEP) (Correct answer)
Dental practitioners should prescribe antibiotics for every patient to prevent resistance

Correct answer: Antimicrobial resistance occurs when bacteria evolve mechanisms to survive antibiotic exposure; dental practitioners contribute to stewardship by prescribing antibiotics only when clinically indicated, choosing narrow-spectrum agents, using appropriate doses and durations, prioritising drainage/removal of the cause over antibiotics alone, and following evidence-based prescribing guidelines (FGDP/SDCEP)

Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is a global health threat. Bacteria develop resistance through genetic mutation or horizontal gene transfer, producing enzymes that degrade antibiotics (beta-lactamases), altering drug targets, increasing efflux pumps, or reducing permeability. Dental prescribing accounts for approximately 5-10% of all antibiotic prescriptions in England. Stewardship measures include: only prescribing when clinically indicated (not for irreversible pulpitis, dry socket, or mild pericoronitis), addressing the cause (drainage, extraction) rather than relying on antibiotics, using narrow-spectrum first-line agents, following FGDP/SDCEP guidelines, using the correct dose and duration, and educating patients that antibiotics are not a substitute for dental treatment.

Question 12: When selecting the shade for a porcelain-fused-to-metal (PFM) or all-ceramic crown, which of the following is the CORRECT approach?

Shade matching should be done in natural daylight or standardised lighting, with teeth moist, before preparation, using a shade guide held adjacent to the teeth and with the surrounding teeth visible for comparison (Correct answer)
Shade matching should always be done under standardised laboratory lighting only
Shade selection is only relevant for anterior teeth — posterior crowns do not require shade matching
The dentist's preference for a particular aesthetic should override the patient's choice of shade

Correct answer: Shade matching should be done in natural daylight or standardised lighting, with teeth moist, before preparation, using a shade guide held adjacent to the teeth and with the surrounding teeth visible for comparison

Accurate shade matching requires natural or standardised light, moist teeth (dehydrated teeth are falsely light), performing shade selection before cavity preparation (to avoid patient fatigue and altered tooth appearance), and comparing the shade guide to the adjacent natural teeth.

Question 13: Mineral Trioxide Aggregate (MTA) is indicated for which of the following endodontic procedures?

Obturation of the entire root canal system in standard cases
Removal of separated instruments from root canals
Perforation repair, apexification of open apices, and apical plug in non-surgical endodontics (Correct answer)
Cleaning and shaping of calcified root canals

Correct answer: Perforation repair, apexification of open apices, and apical plug in non-surgical endodontics

MTA's biocompatibility, sealing ability, and setting in moist environments make it ideal for perforation repair, apexification (closing an open apex), and placing an apical plug in roots with immature or open apices.

Question 14: Which of the following was a key change introduced in the 2017 World Workshop Classification of Periodontal Diseases, which has been adopted for use in the United Kingdom?

The replacement of the 'chronic' and 'aggressive' periodontitis classifications with a staging and grading system. (Correct answer)
The creation of a new category for 'refractory periodontitis'.
The introduction of the Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) as a primary diagnostic tool.
The recommendation to use antibiotics as a first-line treatment for all BPE scores of 4.

Correct answer: The replacement of the 'chronic' and 'aggressive' periodontitis classifications with a staging and grading system.

A principal change in the 2017 classification was the elimination of the distinction between 'chronic' and 'aggressive' periodontitis. These were replaced by a single diagnosis of 'Periodontitis', which is then further described by a Stage (I-IV, based on severity and complexity) and a Grade (A-C, based on rate of progression and risk factors). The BPE is a screening tool, not a new diagnostic tool from this classification. 'Refractory periodontitis' is not a new category, and antibiotics are not a first-line treatment.

Question 15: Which stain is used to identify Candida hyphae in a mucosal biopsy?

Haematoxylin and eosin only
Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain (Correct answer)
Ziehl-Neelsen
Gram stain

Correct answer: Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain

PAS stain highlights the polysaccharide-rich cell walls of Candida hyphae and pseudohyphae in a bright magenta colour, making it the standard histochemical stain for fungal identification in tissue sections.

Question 16: The primary mechanism by which functional appliances achieve their effect is:

Suture expansion of the midpalatal suture
Direct mechanical forces applied to individual teeth
Redirecting condylar growth by posturing the mandible forward (Correct answer)
Applying torquing forces to root apices

Correct answer: Redirecting condylar growth by posturing the mandible forward

Functional appliances hold the mandible in a protrusive position, transmitting muscle and stretch forces to stimulate adaptive condylar growth and dental compensation.

Question 17: What systemic disease is associated with multiple periapical radiolucencies without obvious dental causes?

Coeliac disease
Multiple myeloma (Correct answer)
Hypertension
Type 2 diabetes

Correct answer: Multiple myeloma

Multiple myeloma can present with multiple punched-out radiolucencies throughout the jaw that mimic periapical pathology; systemic investigation including serum electrophoresis is required.

Question 18: When providing a complete upper denture for an edentulous patient, which anatomical landmark defines the POSTERIOR limit of the upper denture base?

The retromolar pad
The vibrating line (fovea palatinae), marking the junction between the hard and soft palate (Correct answer)
The posterior limit of the hard palate bony shelf
The pterygomandibular raphe

Correct answer: The vibrating line (fovea palatinae), marking the junction between the hard and soft palate

The posterior border of an upper complete denture is set at the vibrating line — the transition between the immobile hard palate and the movable soft palate — to maximise posterior seal without causing gag reflex or denture dislodgement during function.

Question 19: According to NICE guidelines, what are the recommended intervals between dental recall examinations for adults and children?

Every 6 months for all patients regardless of risk
For adults, the interval should be personalised between 3 and 24 months based on caries risk, periodontal status, and other factors; for children and young people under 18, the interval should be between 3 and 12 months (Correct answer)
Annual examinations for all patients without exception
Dental examinations are only needed when patients have symptoms

Correct answer: For adults, the interval should be personalised between 3 and 24 months based on caries risk, periodontal status, and other factors; for children and young people under 18, the interval should be between 3 and 12 months

NICE Clinical Guideline CG19 (2004, reviewed 2018) recommends variable recall intervals based on individual risk assessment. For adults (18+): the shortest interval is 3 months (high risk) and the longest is 24 months (low risk). For children and young people (<18): the shortest is 3 months and the longest is 12 months (shorter maximum because of the rapidly changing dentition, higher caries incidence, and need to establish preventive behaviours). Risk factors considered include caries history, diet, fluoride exposure, medical history, social factors, and clinical findings.

Question 20: What is a dental panoramic tomograph (OPG) most commonly used for in routine dental practice?

Overview of the dentition, jaws, and TMJs — assessment of third molars, bone levels, pathology, and developing teeth (Correct answer)
Detection of early interproximal caries
Diagnosis of periapical pathology in single teeth
Precise measurement of periodontal bone levels

Correct answer: Overview of the dentition, jaws, and TMJs — assessment of third molars, bone levels, pathology, and developing teeth

The OPG provides a broad survey image of both dental arches, sinuses, and TMJs, useful for third molar assessment, pathology screening, orthodontic planning, and bone level surveys, but lacks detail for caries or periapical diagnosis.

Question 21: Porphyromonas gingivalis is described as a 'keystone pathogen' in chronic periodontitis. Which of the following BEST explains this designation?

It is the most numerically abundant organism in the subgingival biofilm of periodontitis patients
It is the only organism capable of forming the early colonisers that allow later pathogenic species to attach to the tooth surface
Despite being present in low abundance, it disproportionately disrupts host innate immunity — particularly complement and neutrophil pathways — driving polymicrobial dysbiosis (Correct answer)
It produces a unique collagenase that directly destroys alveolar bone, making it more destructive than any other periodontal pathogen

Correct answer: Despite being present in low abundance, it disproportionately disrupts host innate immunity — particularly complement and neutrophil pathways — driving polymicrobial dysbiosis

P. gingivalis is the archetypal keystone pathogen: even at low numbers it hijacks complement signalling (via gingipain-mediated C5a generation and C3 degradation) and impairs neutrophil oxidative killing. This immune evasion creates a permissive environment that allows the broader dysbiotic community — including the 'red complex' organisms — to flourish and cause tissue destruction disproportionate to P. gingivalis abundance alone.

Question 22: What is the significance of erythroplakia compared to leukoplakia?

Only occurs on the palate
Lower risk than leukoplakia
Same risk as leukoplakia
Much higher malignant transformation rate (>40%) and more likely to contain dysplasia at presentation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Much higher malignant transformation rate (>40%) and more likely to contain dysplasia at presentation

Erythroplakia (red patch) carries a far higher rate of dysplasia or carcinoma in situ at presentation (>40–50%) than leukoplakia, making it a more serious potentially malignant disorder.

Question 23: What is the definition of 'sensitivity' of a diagnostic test?

The proportion of those who truly have the disease who test positive — TP/(TP+FN) — the test's ability to detect true disease (Correct answer)
The percentage of correct diagnoses
The accuracy of the test
Proportion of true negatives among disease-free people

Correct answer: The proportion of those who truly have the disease who test positive — TP/(TP+FN) — the test's ability to detect true disease

Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN) — a highly sensitive test correctly identifies most true disease cases; a low-sensitivity test misses cases (false negatives). High sensitivity is important when missing disease would be harmful.

Question 24: A 68-year-old patient taking apixaban 5mg twice daily for atrial fibrillation requires a routine extraction of a single mobile maxillary premolar. The procedure is expected to be straightforward. According to the Scottish Dental Clinical Effectiveness Programme (SDCEP) guidance, what is the most appropriate management of their anticoagulant therapy?

Liaise with the patient's GMP to arrange bridging therapy with low molecular weight heparin.
Proceed with the extraction without altering the apixaban regimen, using local haemostatic measures. (Correct answer)
Advise the patient to stop taking apixaban for 3 days prior to the extraction.
Check the patient's INR on the day of the procedure and proceed if it is below 4.0.

Correct answer: Proceed with the extraction without altering the apixaban regimen, using local haemostatic measures.

The SDCEP guidance 'Management of Dental Patients Taking Anticoagulants or Antiplatelet Drugs' states that for patients on a Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC) like apixaban undergoing a procedure with a low risk of bleeding complications (such as a routine single extraction), treatment should proceed without interrupting their anticoagulant medication. Enhanced local haemostatic measures, such as packing and suturing, should be employed. Stopping the medication or using bridging therapy is not recommended for low-risk procedures and increases thromboembolic risk. INR monitoring is only relevant for patients taking Vitamin K antagonists like warfarin.

Question 25: What causes geographic tongue (benign migratory glossitis)?

Candida only
Unknown aetiology; characterised by atrophic migratory areas with red patches and white borders — benign (Correct answer)
HPV infection
Iron deficiency exclusively

Correct answer: Unknown aetiology; characterised by atrophic migratory areas with red patches and white borders — benign

Geographic tongue has an unknown but likely multifactorial aetiology; it presents as migratory erythematous patches (atrophic filiform papillae) with white/yellow borders and is a benign condition.

Question 26: A 55-year-old female patient complains of a persistently dry mouth and gritty-feeling eyes for the past year. Which of the following investigation findings would most strongly support a diagnosis of primary Sjögren's syndrome?

A positive test for Rheumatoid Factor.
An unstimulated whole salivary flow rate of <0.2 mL/min.
Presence of anti-Ro (SSA) and/or anti-La (SSB) autoantibodies in serum. (Correct answer)
An elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR).

Correct answer: Presence of anti-Ro (SSA) and/or anti-La (SSB) autoantibodies in serum.

Primary Sjögren's syndrome is an autoimmune disease targeting exocrine glands. According to the internationally used ACR-EULAR classification criteria, the presence of specific autoantibodies, particularly anti-Ro (SSA), is a key serological marker with a high weighting for diagnosis. While a reduced salivary flow rate is also a criterion, it is less specific. Elevated ESR and positive Rheumatoid Factor are non-specific findings that can be present in many inflammatory or autoimmune conditions.

Question 27: What is the effective radiation dose of a standard full-mouth periapical series compared to a panoramic radiograph?

Full mouth series: ~150–170 µSv; panoramic: ~6–22 µSv (modern systems) (Correct answer)
Both deliver identical doses
Full mouth series is lower than panoramic
Panoramic is always higher

Correct answer: Full mouth series: ~150–170 µSv; panoramic: ~6–22 µSv (modern systems)

A full-mouth periapical series (18 films) typically delivers a higher cumulative dose than a panoramic radiograph; modern digital panoramic systems significantly reduce dose compared to film panoramics.

Question 28: During the examination of a 7-year-old child you observe multiple bruises in different stages of healing on the arms and neck. The accompanying adult becomes agitated when questioned and offers an inconsistent explanation. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Confront the adult directly and refuse to complete treatment until a satisfactory explanation is provided
Accept the adult's explanation and record it in the notes without further action
Document your concerns carefully and follow your practice's safeguarding policy, including referral to local authority children's services or advice from the named safeguarding lead (Correct answer)
Telephone the police immediately and arrange urgent transfer to hospital

Correct answer: Document your concerns carefully and follow your practice's safeguarding policy, including referral to local authority children's services or advice from the named safeguarding lead

All dental professionals have a statutory and professional duty to safeguard children. When abuse is suspected, the correct response is to follow established local safeguarding procedures — including careful contemporaneous documentation and referral through the appropriate statutory pathway. Direct confrontation risks endangering the child, and bypassing the structured referral pathway undermines multi-agency safeguarding.

Question 29: What does the term 'ferrule effect' mean in the context of post and core crown restorations?

The need to reduce the coronal tooth structure by a specific amount before crown placement
The minimum length of post required to distribute stress along the root
A band of sound tooth structure circumferentially embraced by the crown margin that improves fracture resistance of the restored tooth (Correct answer)
The use of a fibre post to reinforce the root against fracture

Correct answer: A band of sound tooth structure circumferentially embraced by the crown margin that improves fracture resistance of the restored tooth

The ferrule effect refers to the protective band of sound dentine that the crown margin engages around the entire circumference of the tooth. This 'ferrule' resists the wedging and splitting forces applied to the post-retained crown during function.

Question 30: What is the purpose of water fluoridation in public health dentistry?

Whitening of teeth at the population level
Prevention of periodontal disease
Population-level caries prevention — optimal fluoride (0.7–1.0 mg/L in UK) reduces DMFT by approximately 25–30% without significant health risk (Correct answer)
Treatment of existing caries

Correct answer: Population-level caries prevention — optimal fluoride (0.7–1.0 mg/L in UK) reduces DMFT by approximately 25–30% without significant health risk

Community water fluoridation adjusts fluoride concentration to 0.7–1.0 ppm (mg/L), providing a constant low-level fluoride exposure that reduces caries incidence across all socioeconomic groups.

Question 31: What is the SIGN 138 guideline and its relevance to dental public health in Scotland?

A sedation safety guideline
A periodontitis management guideline
SIGN 138 covers the prevention and management of dental caries in children — provides evidence-based recommendations for Scottish dental teams (Correct answer)
An oral cancer guideline for England only

Correct answer: SIGN 138 covers the prevention and management of dental caries in children — provides evidence-based recommendations for Scottish dental teams

SIGN 138 (Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network) provides evidence-based recommendations for prevention and management of dental caries in children, directly guiding clinical practice in Scottish primary care.

MJDF Part 1 — Membership of the Joint Dental Faculties

The MJDF Part 1 is a postgraduate UK dental examination set jointly by the Royal College of Surgeons of England and the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Glasgow, assessing applied basic science and clinical knowledge across all major dental disciplines at the level of a dentist with two years of postgraduate foundation experience.

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35 min

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70%

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