MFDS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield MFDS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which systemic condition is most commonly associated with erythema multiforme? → Herpes simplex virus infection
2. Articaine differs from other amide local anaesthetics in that it contains: → A thiophene ring
3. Cotton wool appearance on radiographs is characteristic of which condition? → Paget's disease of bone
4. Which bones form the floor of the orbit? → Zygomatic, maxillary, and palatine bones
5. Dead tracts in dentine are caused by: → Degeneration of odontoblast processes
6. Hyperthyroidism in a dental patient most relevantly affects dental management by: → Increasing sensitivity to adrenaline and potential for thyroid crisis
7. In Angle's classification, a Class II division 2 malocclusion is characterised by: → Retroclined upper central incisors and a deep overbite
8. Which growth factor is most critical for the initiation of tooth development? → FGF-8
9. A patient presents with multiple jaw cysts. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the PTCH1 gene. What syndrome is this patient likely to have? → Gorlin-Goltz syndrome (naevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome)
10. Sickle cell anaemia patients face which specific risk during general anaesthesia? → Sickling crisis triggered by hypoxia, dehydration or hypothermia
11. Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia most commonly affects which demographic group? → Middle-aged black women
12. Which virus is most strongly associated with the development of oral hairy leukoplakia? → EBV
13. Which muscle of mastication is the most powerful elevator of the mandible? → Masseter
14. Which instrument design is most appropriate for initial negotiation of a calcified or curved root canal? → ISO size 10 stainless steel K-file
15. What is the primary function of the stratum intermedium in the developing tooth? → Support of ameloblast function
16. What property of impression materials describes their ability to recover from deformation after removal from the mouth? → Elastic recovery
17. Nikolsky's sign is positive in which oral condition? → Pemphigus vulgaris
18. The four muscles of mastication are all innervated by which nerve? → Mandibular nerve (CN V3)
19. Which type of tooth movement is most energy-efficient and causes the least root resorption in orthodontics? → Tipping
20. The maximum recommended dose of lidocaine with adrenaline for a healthy adult is approximately: → 7 mg/kg (max 500 mg)
21. The functional unit of the periodontium that suspends the tooth in the socket is the: → Periodontal ligament
22. What is the most appropriate local anaesthetic technique for extraction of a lower first molar in an adult patient? → Inferior alveolar nerve block supplemented with long buccal nerve infiltration
23. Which property of local anaesthetics determines their potency? → Lipid solubility
24. Which feature distinguishes Crohn's disease from ulcerative colitis in oral manifestations? → Cobblestone buccal mucosa and lip swelling occur in Crohn's
25. Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is conveyed by which nerve? → Chorda tympani (CN VII)
26. Which cells are responsible for forming dentine? → Odontoblasts
27. Which form of aphthous ulceration leaves scarring on healing? → Major aphthous ulcers
28. The maxillary teeth receive their primary arterial supply from branches of which artery? → Maxillary artery
29. Which zone of the dental pulp is immediately deep to the odontoblast layer? → Cell-free zone of Weil
30. The greater palatine nerve supplies the palatal mucosa in which region? → Hard palate from the canine region to the posterior margin