Medical Laboratory Technician  Exam Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Medical Laboratory Technician  Exam facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which type of error causes all quality control results to shift in the same direction over time? → Systematic error
2. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy? → Type IV – delayed-type (cell-mediated)
3. A serum protein electrophoresis shows a tall, narrow spike in the gamma region. Which laboratory finding would most support a diagnosis of multiple myeloma? → Bence Jones proteins in urine and rouleaux formation on peripheral smear
4. A cerebrospinal fluid sample with a glucose level significantly lower than the serum glucose and elevated protein most likely suggests what? → Bacterial meningitis
5. Urine can be examined for the presence of _________ to identify metabolic acidosis. → Ketone bodies
6. A laboratory's proficiency testing (PT) result for glucose is graded as unacceptable. What is the required next step under CLIA? → Perform an investigation and implement corrective action
7. A blood bank technologist performs a DAT on a post-transfusion sample and obtains a mixed-field reaction. What does this finding most likely indicate? → Circulating transfused donor cells are being coated with recipient antibody in vivo
8. Which blood group antibody is classically associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)? → Anti-P (Donath-Landsteiner antibody)
9. A patient's serum shows a prozone phenomenon in an RPR test. What should the laboratory do? → Dilute the serum and repeat the test
10. A patient with recurrent Neisseria infections and low CH50 but normal C3 levels most likely has a deficiency of: → Terminal complement components (C5–C9)
11. Which technique is used to amplify specific DNA sequences in molecular diagnostics? → Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
12. A prolonged bleeding time with a normal platelet count and normal PT/aPTT most likely suggests which condition? → von Willebrand disease
13. Anti-centromere antibodies detected by ANA testing are most specifically associated with which disease? → Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (CREST syndrome)
14. The coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as: → (SD / Mean) × 100
15. A physician orders a trough level for vancomycin, a therapeutic drug. When is the appropriate time to collect the blood specimen for this test? → Up to 30 minutes before the next scheduled dose
16. Which immunoglobulin class is most abundant in serum and provides the majority of antibody-based immunity against invading pathogens? → IgG
17. A patient presents with recurrent Neisseria infections. Which complement component deficiency is most likely? → C5-C9 (membrane attack complex)
18. A laboratory employee accidentally splashes an unknown chemical reagent into their eyes. What is the immediate first action that should be taken? → Flush the eyes at the eyewash station with water for at least 15 minutes
19. Which tube color is used for coagulation studies such as PT and aPTT? → Light blue-top (sodium citrate)
20. Which technique uses labeled probes hybridized to target nucleic acid on a membrane to detect gene expression patterns? → Northern blot
21. A reference interval is established using samples from: → Apparently healthy individuals representative of the test population
22. What morphological trait facilitates the differentiation of renal tubular epithelial cells from spherical forms of transitional epithelial cells? → Nucleus orientation
23. What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment after working in a BSL-2 laboratory? → Gloves, gown, eye protection, mask, hand hygiene
24. Which complement pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes involving IgG or IgM? → Classical pathway
25. In urinalysis, the presence of waxy casts most commonly indicates what condition? → Chronic renal failure
26. Which OSHA standard specifically addresses occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens in clinical laboratories? → 29 CFR 1910.1030
27. Which cytokine is the primary inducer of acute-phase protein synthesis in the liver? → IL-6
28. An elevated D-dimer test is most clinically significant for which of the following applications? → Ruling out venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a low-probability patient
29. A laboratory performs a fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test. This test is classified as which type of syphilis test? → Treponemal confirmatory test
30. In real-time PCR (qPCR), fluorescence is measured to: → Quantify the amount of target DNA during amplification