Practice Test Geeks(MCCQE) Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination Practice Test
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Neurological Disorders Flashcards

7 cards from real MCCQE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Neurological Disorders flashcards as text

  1. A 25-year-old woman presents with ascending weakness that began in her feet 2 weeks after a gastrointestinal illness. Deep tendon reflexes are absent bilaterally. CSF shows elevated protein with normal cell count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

    Guillain-Barré syndrome presents with ascending flaccid paralysis, areflexia, and albuminocytologic dissociation (high CSF protein, normal cells) often following infection.

  2. A 70-year-old man develops sudden-onset severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life,' followed by neck stiffness. CT head is normal. What is the next most important diagnostic step?

    Answer: Lumbar puncture for CSF analysis

    A negative CT does not exclude subarachnoid hemorrhage; lumbar puncture should be performed to look for xanthochromia and red blood cells in the CSF.

  3. A 45-year-old woman with known HIV presents with headache, fever, and confusion over 5 days. CSF India ink preparation shows encapsulated yeast. What is the most appropriate treatment?

    Answer: Amphotericin B plus flucytosine

    Cryptococcal meningitis (seen on India ink as encapsulated yeast) is treated with induction therapy using amphotericin B plus flucytosine for at least 2 weeks.

  4. A 30-year-old man presents with acute-onset severe eye pain, diplopia, and proptosis. MRI reveals a lesion in the cavernous sinus. Which cranial nerve is NOT typically affected by cavernous sinus pathology?

    Answer: CN VII (facial)

    The facial nerve (CN VII) does not pass through the cavernous sinus; the structures within it include CN III, IV, V1, V2, and VI, as well as the internal carotid artery.

  5. A 65-year-old woman with hypertension presents with sudden-onset right-sided hemiplegia and hemisensory loss. CT shows a hyperdense lesion in the left internal capsule. What type of stroke is most likely?

    Answer: Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage

    A hyperdense lesion on CT indicates hemorrhage; hypertensive ICH most commonly affects the basal ganglia and internal capsule, causing contralateral hemiplegia.

  6. A 50-year-old man has progressive gait disturbance with wide base, urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline over 6 months. CT head shows dilated ventricles disproportionate to sulcal atrophy. Which condition is most likely?

    Answer: Communicating hydrocephalus (normal pressure hydrocephalus)

    Normal pressure hydrocephalus classically presents with the triad of gait apraxia, urinary incontinence, and dementia, with communicating hydrocephalus on imaging.

  7. A 28-year-old woman presents with acute onset of right eye pain and vision loss. Examination reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect and decreased color vision. MRI shows enhancement of the right optic nerve. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Optic neuritis

    Optic neuritis presents with painful vision loss, relative afferent pupillary defect, impaired color vision, and optic nerve enhancement on MRI, often associated with multiple sclerosis.