Common Psychiatric Disorders Flashcards
7 cards from real MCCQE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Common Psychiatric Disorders flashcards as text
A 50-year-old man presents with grandiose delusions that he has been chosen to lead the country, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and reckless spending for 10 days. He has no insight. What is the acute treatment of choice?
Answer: Antipsychotic with or without a mood stabilizer
Acute mania with psychotic features requires an antipsychotic, often combined with a mood stabilizer such as lithium or valproate, for rapid symptom control.
A 34-year-old woman reports re-experiencing a car accident through flashbacks and nightmares, hypervigilance, emotional numbing, and avoidance of driving for 3 months. What is the first-line pharmacotherapy?
Answer: Sertraline (SSRI)
SSRIs (sertraline, paroxetine) are first-line pharmacotherapy for PTSD, targeting mood, anxiety, and intrusion symptoms.
A 48-year-old man with no cardiac history presents with palpitations, diaphoresis, tremor, and intense fear of dying during discrete 15-minute episodes. ECG and cardiac workup are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Panic disorder
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks with somatic symptoms and fear of dying, with normal medical workup.
A 26-year-old man presents with recurrent, intrusive thoughts about contamination and compulsive hand washing that takes 3 hours daily. He finds the thoughts distressing and ego-dystonic. What is the first-line treatment?
Answer: CBT with exposure and response prevention (ERP) and/or SSRI
CBT with exposure and response prevention (ERP) combined with an SSRI is first-line treatment for OCD, targeting both behavioral and neurochemical mechanisms.
A 38-year-old woman presents with persistent medically unexplained neurological symptoms including paralysis and blindness following a stressful event. Neurological examination is inconsistent. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Functional neurological symptom disorder (conversion disorder)
Functional neurological symptom disorder (conversion disorder) presents with neurological symptoms that are incompatible with recognized neurological disease and occur after psychological stress.
A 42-year-old man with bipolar disorder on lithium reports polyuria, polydipsia, and fine tremor. His lithium level is 0.7 mEq/L (therapeutic). What is the most appropriate management for polyuria?
Answer: Add amiloride or reduce lithium dose if clinically appropriate
Lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is managed by reducing the lithium dose (if safe) and/or adding amiloride, which reduces lithium reabsorption in collecting ducts.
A 29-year-old woman with recurrent major depression is started on fluoxetine. After 2 weeks, she reports increased energy but has not yet experienced mood improvement. What is the most appropriate counselling at this point?
Answer: Advise that increased energy before mood improvement may transiently increase suicide risk
During early antidepressant treatment, returning energy before mood improvement can increase the risk of acting on suicidal ideation, requiring close monitoring.