MAC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield MAC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What spinal level should be achieved for effective first-stage labor analgesia with an epidural? → T10-L1
2. What is the definitive airway management strategy when 'cannot intubate, cannot oxygenate' (CICO) is declared? → Emergency surgical airway (cricothyrotomy)
3. Which induction method is preferred for a pediatric patient with a full stomach requiring emergency surgery? → Rapid sequence induction with succinylcholine
4. Which functional capacity assessment best predicts perioperative cardiac risk? → Ability to climb two flights of stairs without symptoms
5. Which dermatome level must be achieved for a cesarean section under spinal anesthesia? → T4
6. What does a Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI) score of 3 or more indicate? → High cardiac risk
7. Which airway assessment finding suggests potential difficult intubation? → Mallampati class III-IV
8. What is one ethical obligation of certified professionals? → Promote patient welfare
9. Which condition most significantly increases the risk of pulmonary aspiration during induction? → Full stomach or gastroparesis
10. What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for postoperative shivering in the PACU? → Meperidine 25 mg IV
11. What is the appropriate induction dose of propofol in healthy pediatric patients compared to adults? → Higher mg/kg dose required
12. Cryoprecipitate is the most concentrated source of which clotting factors and proteins? → Fibrinogen, Factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, and Factor XIII
13. What is the Aldrete score used to assess in the PACU? → Readiness for PACU discharge
14. What is the purpose of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic solution for nerve blocks? → Prolong duration and reduce systemic absorption via vasoconstriction
15. What is the treatment of choice for malignant hyperthermia? → Dantrolene sodium IV
16. Which device is commonly used to deliver volatile anesthetics? → Vaporizer
17. What systematic approach guides evaluation of a 'cannot ventilate' situation after intubation? → Evaluate tube position, suction, bronchospasm, and tension pneumothorax (DOPES)
18. What is the primary hazard of using nitrous oxide in a patient with pneumothorax? → N2O diffuses into air-filled spaces, expanding the pneumothorax
19. A patient develops tinnitus and metallic taste shortly after a peripheral nerve block injection. What should be suspected? → Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST)
20. What is the primary purpose of the preanesthetic evaluation? → To identify and optimize medical conditions before anesthesia
21. How should adverse anesthesia events be handled? → Record and report promptly
22. Which anatomical difference in infant airways compared to adults most affects laryngoscopy? → The infant larynx is positioned more anteriorly and cephalad
23. Which patient group is at highest risk for postoperative pulmonary complications? → Elderly patients with COPD or OSA having upper abdominal surgery
24. Intraoperative cell salvage (autotransfusion) is CONTRAINDICATED in which of the following clinical situations? → Active bacterial contamination of the operative field
25. Which inhaled anesthetic has the fastest onset? → Desflurane
26. Which nerve block is commonly used for postoperative analgesia after total knee arthroplasty to preserve quadriceps strength? → Adductor canal block
27. A spinal block that ascends to T4 may block which critical physiologic response? → Cardiac accelerator fibers
28. What does the term 'continuous peripheral nerve block' refer to? → A perineural catheter delivering ongoing local anesthetic infusion
29. What consciousness criterion from the modified Aldrete score must be met before PACU discharge? → Patient must respond to verbal commands
30. Post-dural puncture headache (PDPH) is treated definitively with what procedure? → Epidural blood patch