JIBC Emergency Medical Responder Care 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A 45-year-old patient reports sudden crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm with diaphoresis. The EMR's priority action is to:
- Administer oral glucose
- Assist with nitroglycerin from the patient's prescription immediately
- Place the patient in a position of comfort and prepare for rapid transport (Correct answer)
- Apply a cold pack to the chest
Correct answer: Place the patient in a position of comfort and prepare for rapid transport
Signs of an acute MI require placing the patient in a position of comfort and arranging rapid transport to definitive care.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a sign of adequate artificial ventilation in an adult patient?
- Visible chest rise with each breath
- Improvement in skin color from cyanotic to pink
- Epigastric distension worsening with each breath (Correct answer)
- Oxygen saturation improving on the pulse oximeter
Correct answer: Epigastric distension worsening with each breath
Epigastric distension indicates air is entering the stomach rather than the lungs, signaling inadequate or misplaced ventilation.
Question 3: When controlling severe external hemorrhage from an extremity wound, what is the FIRST intervention an EMR should attempt?
- Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound
- Apply direct pressure with a gloved hand (Correct answer)
- Elevate the limb above heart level
- Pack the wound with hemostatic gauze
Correct answer: Apply direct pressure with a gloved hand
Direct pressure is the first-line intervention for controlling external hemorrhage before progressing to elevation or tourniquet.
Question 4: A patient with a known peanut allergy develops hives, throat tightness, and hypotension after eating. Which medication is the definitive emergency treatment?
- Oral diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- Sublingual nitroglycerin
- Intramuscular epinephrine (EpiPen) (Correct answer)
- Inhaled salbutamol (Ventolin)
Correct answer: Intramuscular epinephrine (EpiPen)
Intramuscular epinephrine is the definitive treatment for anaphylaxis as it reverses bronchospasm, vasodilation, and angioedema.
Question 5: When using an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient with a pacemaker, the EMR should:
- Avoid using the AED as it will damage the pacemaker
- Place pads at least 2.5 cm (1 inch) away from the implanted device (Correct answer)
- Only use the AED if the pacemaker is visible under the skin
- Double the standard energy setting
Correct answer: Place pads at least 2.5 cm (1 inch) away from the implanted device
AED pads should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 inch) away from a pacemaker to ensure effective energy delivery without device interference.
Question 6: A patient presents with unequal pupils after a head injury. This finding suggests:
- Hypoglycemia
- Possible intracranial pressure increase or brain herniation (Correct answer)
- Drug intoxication only
- Normal variation in head trauma
Correct answer: Possible intracranial pressure increase or brain herniation
Unequal pupils (anisocoria) after head trauma suggest increasing intracranial pressure or brain herniation requiring urgent care.
Question 7: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three components?
- Pulse, Respiratory rate, Blood pressure
- Eye opening, Verbal response, Motor response (Correct answer)
- Pupil response, Skin color, Temperature
- Airway patency, Breathing effort, Circulation
Correct answer: Eye opening, Verbal response, Motor response
The GCS evaluates Eye opening, Verbal response, and Motor response to provide a standardized neurological assessment score.
JIBC Emergency Medical Responder Care 3
A 45-year-old patient reports sudden crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm with diaphoresis.
The EMR's priority action is to: