JD Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield JD facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which intentional tort consists of an intentional act causing reasonable apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive contact? → Assault
2. Mutual mistake in contract law allows rescission when both parties were mistaken about what? → A basic assumption on which the contract was made
3. Under the spousal testimonial privilege in federal courts, who holds the privilege? → The testifying spouse only
4. Which doctrine allows federal courts to avoid deciding constitutional questions when a case can be resolved on other grounds? → Constitutional avoidance canon
5. Under FRCP Rule 23, a class action may be certified only if which requirement is NOT among the Rule 23(a) prerequisites? → Predominance
6. Under FRE 901, authentication of evidence requires: → Evidence sufficient to support a finding that the item is what the proponent claims
7. What is 'consideration' in contract law? → A bargained-for exchange involving a legal benefit or detriment
8. Under the 'rescue doctrine,' a rescuer injured while attempting to save another from defendant's negligence can recover because: → Rescue is a foreseeable response to negligence, making the rescuer a foreseeable plaintiff
9. The marital communications privilege protects: → Confidential communications made during a valid marriage
10. Which element distinguishes battery from assault? → Actual harmful or offensive contact
11. Punitive damages in tort cases are awarded to: → Punish defendants for malicious or outrageous conduct and deter similar behavior
12. The 'exclusionary rule' provides that evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment is: → Excluded from use at trial
13. Which of the following is NOT an exception to the hearsay rule under FRE 803? → Prior inconsistent statement of a witness
14. The 'reasonable person' standard in negligence law asks whether the defendant acted as: → A person of ordinary prudence under the same or similar circumstances
15. Under FRE 602, a witness may testify only if: → The witness has personal knowledge of the matter
16. The best evidence rule (FRE 1002) requires that to prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph, a party must produce: → The original document or an admissible duplicate
17. In federal court, a jury verdict must be set aside under FRCP Rule 50 if: → No reasonable jury could have found for the non-moving party on the evidence presented
18. Which constitutional amendment abolished slavery throughout the United States? → Thirteenth Amendment
19. Which element is NOT required to establish a negligence claim? → Intent to cause harm
20. Which constitutional provision prohibits states from abridging the privileges or immunities of U.S. citizens? → Fourteenth Amendment
21. The Sixth Amendment right to counsel attaches at what stage of a criminal proceeding? → At the initiation of formal adversarial proceedings
22. In New York Times Co. v. Sullivan (1964), the Supreme Court held that a public official suing for defamation must prove what? → Actual malice (knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for truth)
23. Under FRE 609, a prior felony conviction may be used to impeach a witness if: → The crime involved dishonesty, or was a felony and its probative value outweighs prejudice
24. What is the primary measure of damages for breach of contract? → Expectation damages
25. The 'eggshell skull' (thin skull) rule in tort law holds that a defendant is liable for: → The full extent of plaintiff's injuries, even if the plaintiff had unusual vulnerability
26. The 'pleading' standard established in Ashcroft v. Iqbal (2009) requires that a complaint contain: → Sufficient factual content to state a claim that is plausible on its face
27. What is 'specific performance' as a contract remedy? → Court order compelling a party to perform the contract
28. The 'good faith exception' to the exclusionary rule, established in United States v. Leon (1984), applies when: → Officers objectively and reasonably rely on a facially valid warrant later found defective
29. Which doctrine permits federal appellate courts to review only 'final decisions' of district courts under 28 U.S.C. § 1291? → Final judgment rule
30. Under FRE 404(b), evidence of prior bad acts is admissible for which purpose? → To prove intent, knowledge, or absence of mistake