IV Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield IV facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A nurse must administer IV labetalol 20 mg over 2 minutes via IVP. Using a 5 mg/mL concentration, how many mL should be administered? → 4 mL
2. When should a nurse check the patency of a venous access device? → Before every medication or fluid infusion
3. When reconstituting a powdered medication for IV administration, which action is most appropriate? → Inject diluent directly onto the powder and gently swirl
4. Why are antimicrobial-impregnated catheters recommended for patients requiring short-term central venous access in high-risk settings? → They release antimicrobial agents to inhibit colonization and reduce CLABSI risk
5. A patient's ABG shows pH 7.28, HCO3 16 mEq/L, PaCO2 32 mmHg. What is the primary acid-base disturbance? → Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
6. Which of the following is a type of venous access device? → Peripheral intravenous catheter (PIV)
7. What is the purpose of using an in-line filter for IV infusions? → To remove particulate matter, air, and some microorganisms from the infusion
8. Which of the following is a key principle of aseptic non-touch technique (ANTT) in IV therapy? → Key parts and key sites must never be touched or contaminated
9. What is the most immediate nursing action when extravasation of a vesicant medication is suspected? → Stop the infusion and leave the catheter in place to aspirate
10. What is the maximum recommended dwell time for a peripheral IV catheter in adults per current INS guidelines? → No set time limit — replace only on clinical indication
11. A patient's IV site shows a Phlebitis Scale score of 3 (erythema, streak formation, and palpable cord). The correct action is: → Discontinue the IV and restart at a new site
12. When calculating IV fluid requirements using the Holliday-Segar method for a 25 kg pediatric patient, what is the correct daily fluid maintenance rate? → 1600 mL/day
13. When removing a peripheral IV catheter, what is the correct post-removal action to prevent hematoma formation? → Apply firm, direct pressure for at least 2–3 minutes
14. When using ultrasound guidance for PICC insertion, which vein characteristic on sonographic imaging indicates it is a VEIN rather than an artery? → Compressibility with gentle probe pressure
15. A patient is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which electrolyte imbalance requires the closest monitoring? → Hypophosphatemia from refeeding syndrome
16. A patient with chronic kidney disease is at greatest risk for which electrolyte imbalance? → Hyperkalemia
17. What is the recommended position of the drip chamber when setting up a primary IV infusion set? → Half-full to allow accurate drop counting and prevent air from entering the pump tubing
18. When selecting a vascular access device, the principle of 'least invasive device for the prescribed therapy' means: → Choose a peripheral IV whenever it can safely accommodate the therapy
19. Third-spacing of fluid refers to fluid that accumulates: → In non-functional extravascular spaces such as the peritoneal cavity
20. Which statement about IV push (IVP) medication administration is correct? → Rate of IVP administration is medication-specific and must be verified in a drug reference
21. Which assessment finding distinguishes extravasation of a vesicant from simple infiltration? → Tissue necrosis, blistering, or severe pain at the site
22. A peripheral IV catheter site has been in place for 5 days with no signs of complications. Per current INS standards, what should the nurse do? → Leave the catheter in place if there are no clinical signs of complications
23. A patient has a serum phosphate of 1.5 mg/dL. Which condition is most likely contributing? → Prolonged malnutrition or refeeding syndrome
24. Which complication is UNIQUE to subclavian central venous catheter insertion compared to internal jugular or femoral approaches? → Pneumothorax
25. A patient's serum potassium is 6.2 mEq/L. Which IV fluid should be avoided? → Potassium Chloride in D5W
26. Which consideration is most important when selecting an IV insertion site in a patient undergoing hemodialysis? → Avoid the arm with an AV fistula or graft to prevent thrombosis and preserve access
27. What should you do if a patient shows signs of fluid overload during IV therapy? → Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider
28. How often should the IV insertion site be monitored for signs of infection? → Every shift or as per facility protocols
29. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is most likely to occur in which patient population? → Elderly patients with cardiac or renal impairment receiving rapid transfusions
30. Which sign indicates hypocalcemia in a patient receiving a large blood transfusion? → Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs