IV Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield IV facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When should a nurse check the patency of a venous access device? → Before every medication or fluid infusion
2. Why are antimicrobial-impregnated catheters recommended for patients requiring short-term central venous access in high-risk settings? → They release antimicrobial agents to inhibit colonization and reduce CLABSI risk
3. Which of the following is a type of venous access device? → Peripheral intravenous catheter (PIV)
4. What is the purpose of using an in-line filter for IV infusions? → To remove particulate matter, air, and some microorganisms from the infusion
5. Which of the following is a key principle of aseptic non-touch technique (ANTT) in IV therapy? → Key parts and key sites must never be touched or contaminated
6. What is the most immediate nursing action when extravasation of a vesicant medication is suspected? → Stop the infusion and leave the catheter in place to aspirate
7. What is the maximum recommended dwell time for a peripheral IV catheter in adults per current INS guidelines? → No set time limit — replace only on clinical indication
8. When calculating IV fluid requirements using the Holliday-Segar method for a 25 kg pediatric patient, what is the correct daily fluid maintenance rate? → 1600 mL/day
9. When removing a peripheral IV catheter, what is the correct post-removal action to prevent hematoma formation? → Apply firm, direct pressure for at least 2–3 minutes
10. What is the recommended position of the drip chamber when setting up a primary IV infusion set? → Half-full to allow accurate drop counting and prevent air from entering the pump tubing
11. A peripheral IV catheter site has been in place for 5 days with no signs of complications. Per current INS standards, what should the nurse do? → Leave the catheter in place if there are no clinical signs of complications
12. Which consideration is most important when selecting an IV insertion site in a patient undergoing hemodialysis? → Avoid the arm with an AV fistula or graft to prevent thrombosis and preserve access
13. What should you do if a patient shows signs of fluid overload during IV therapy? → Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider
14. How often should the IV insertion site be monitored for signs of infection? → Every shift or as per facility protocols
15. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is most likely to occur in which patient population? → Elderly patients with cardiac or renal impairment receiving rapid transfusions
16. How often should administration sets used for continuous infusions of non-lipid solutions be changed according to CDC guidelines? → No more frequently than every 96 hours unless clinically indicated
17. What is the primary risk associated with forcefully flushing a catheter that has resistance? → Catheter fracture or embolism
18. When infusing lipid emulsions as part of TPN, the tubing must be changed every how many hours? → 24 hours
19. What is the recommended dressing change interval for a transparent semipermeable membrane (TSM) dressing on a peripheral IV site? → Every 5–7 days or when soiled, loose, or damp
20. A patient has an order for 2 units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP). The nurse knows that FFP must be transfused within how many hours of thawing? → 24 hours
21. What is a common sign of phlebitis during IV therapy? → Redness, warmth, and swelling at the IV site
22. Which type of dressing is recommended for central venous access device (CVAD) sites in patients with diaphoresis or when TSM dressings will not adhere? → Standard gauze and tape dressing changed every 2 days
23. When caring for an immunocompromised oncology patient with a central venous catheter, which intervention is most critical? → Strict adherence to ANTT for every access and dressing change
24. Which action is most effective in preventing catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSI) during central line insertion? → Applying full barrier precautions including sterile drape, gown, gloves, mask, and cap
25. A patient receiving chemotherapy develops extravasation of doxorubicin (an anthracycline vesicant). Which antidote is indicated? → Dexrazoxane (Totect)
26. In a pregnant patient requiring IV therapy, which solution is recommended to avoid to prevent fetal harm? → Large volumes of hypotonic solutions like 0.45% NaCl administered rapidly
27. How should you monitor fluid balance during IV therapy? → By tracking fluid intake and urinary output
28. Which of the following should be considered before starting an IV medication infusion? → The patient’s hydration status.
29. How should an IV solution bag be inspected before administration? → Check for clarity, color, particulates, expiration date, and integrity of the container
30. Which IV solution is compatible for co-administration with packed red blood cells through a Y-type blood administration set? → Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)