ITLS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ITLS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. During the treatment phase of a MCI, how should available medical resources be allocated among patients? → Allocate resources based on patient triage category, prioritizing immediate patients
2. You are treating a patient with signs of compensated hemorrhagic shock. Which of the following findings would you most likely expect to see first? → Tachycardia and cool, clammy skin.
3. What is the correct order of assessment in the ITLS Basic primary survey? → Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Expose
4. A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury is vomiting while secured to a backboard. What is the immediate management? → Tilt the entire backboard to the side as a unit while suctioning
5. An 88-year-old nursing home resident was found on the floor with a bruised and shortened, externally rotated right leg. What is the most likely injury? → Hip fracture (femoral neck or intertrochanteric)
6. Which of the following is considered one of the four essential components to maintain normal perfusion? → Fluid levels
7. A patient dove into shallow water and has quadriplegia with loss of sensation below the clavicles. At what spinal level is the injury most likely? → C3-C4
8. Prolonged scene times may reflect: → Ineffective team collaboration
9. A 75-year-old patient with multiple rib fractures is at a significantly higher risk for developing pneumonia compared to a younger patient primarily because of: → Decreased chest wall compliance and an ineffective cough leading to atelectasis.
10. SALT triage stands for: → Sort, Assess, Life-saving interventions, Treatment/transport
11. What finding during the ITLS detailed secondary survey would indicate a ruptured diaphragm? → Bowel sounds heard in the left chest
12. A patient has a closed femur fracture with significant thigh swelling. How much blood can be lost into the thigh from this injury alone? → 1000-1500 mL
13. A patient with blunt thoracic trauma develops sudden cardiovascular collapse during positive pressure ventilation. What is the most likely cause? → Simple pneumothorax converting to tension pneumothorax
14. Which medication is indicated for a trauma patient exhibiting signs of increased intracranial pressure with a GCS of 7? → Mannitol
15. In START triage, failure to follow simple commands after airway and circulatory assessment indicates the patient should be classified as: → Immediate (red)
16. When managing a 78-year-old trauma patient, which of the following principles is most important to consider? → A ground-level fall should be treated with a high index of suspicion for severe injury.
17. A patient involved in a rollover MVC is ambulatory at the scene and states he feels fine. His vitals are: HR 110, BP 100/70, RR 22. What should the EMT suspect? → The patient may be in compensated shock despite appearing well
18. During patient packaging for transport, which action is essential when securing a patient with a suspected spinal injury to a long backboard? → Secure the torso first, then the head
19. Which of the following best describes a key physiological difference in how children compensate for hemorrhagic shock compared to adults? → Children can maintain a normal blood pressure despite significant blood loss.
20. During a rapid trauma assessment, a patient develops gurgling sounds during ventilation. What does this indicate and what action is needed? → Fluid in the airway; immediate suctioning
21. In a rear-impact motor vehicle crash, which area of the spine is most susceptible to injury? → Cervical
22. When should an incident commander request mutual aid during a mass casualty incident? → Early in the incident when the scope appears to exceed local capability
23. Which of the following is a key component of the ITLS Secondary Survey? → Obtaining a SAMPLE history.
24. In the ITLS Advanced assessment, what is the recommended ventilation rate for an intubated adult trauma patient without signs of herniation? → 10-12 breaths per minute
25. During secondary triage at the treatment area in a MCI, rescuers should: → Reassess patients and upgrade or downgrade triage categories as conditions change
26. You have placed an NPA in your patient and now observe mild hemorrhage from the nares. You should: → Leave the NPA in place so as not to disturb the clot or reactivate bleeding
27. In the Incident Command System (ICS), 'span of control' refers to: → The number of subordinates one supervisor can effectively manage
28. When ventilating a non-intubated adult trauma patient with a bag-valve-mask (BVM), which of the following actions is most critical to perform? → Ensure a good mask seal and deliver breaths over 1 second
29. In JumpSTART triage, if an apneic child has a palpable peripheral pulse, the rescuer should: → Administer 5 rescue breaths and reassess breathing
30. A patient rescued from a house fire has singed nasal hairs, hoarseness, and carbonaceous sputum. What should the ITLS provider anticipate? → Impending upper airway obstruction from thermal injury