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Pulmonology Flashcards

7 cards from real ITE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 52-year-old male with a history of deep vein thrombosis presents with exertional dyspnea 18 months after a PE. V/Q scan shows multiple segmental mismatched defects. mPAP on RHC is 32 mmHg with PVR of 5 Wood units. What is the best treatment option?

    Answer: Pulmonary endarterectomy (PEA)

    Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) with surgically accessible proximal lesions is best treated with pulmonary endarterectomy, which is potentially curative.

  2. A 60-year-old male with long-standing GERD and Barrett's esophagus develops a dry cough and progressive dyspnea. HRCT shows basal-predominant reticulation with traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing. The BAL shows 6% lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)

    The HRCT pattern of bibasilar honeycombing with traction bronchiectasis represents UIP pattern, most consistent with IPF, even in the context of GERD; low BAL lymphocytes also favor IPF over HP.

  3. A 25-year-old male with cystic fibrosis has FEV1 that has declined from 65% to 42% over 2 years despite optimal inhaled therapy. He has the F508del/F508del genotype. Which CFTR modulator regimen is most appropriate?

    Answer: Elexacaftor-tezacaftor-ivacaftor (Trikafta)

    Elexacaftor-tezacaftor-ivacaftor (Trikafta) is approved for F508del homozygous patients age ≥2 and produces the greatest improvement in lung function of any available CFTR modulator combination.

  4. A 72-year-old male with COPD and FEV1 30% predicted is evaluated for lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS). Which finding would make him an IDEAL candidate for LVRS?

    Answer: Upper-lobe predominant emphysema with low exercise capacity

    The NETT trial showed survival benefit for LVRS in patients with upper-lobe predominant emphysema and low exercise capacity; homogeneous disease with FEV1/DLCO <20% showed excess mortality.

  5. A 44-year-old female never-smoker develops cough and hemoptysis. Bronchoscopy reveals a polypoid endobronchial lesion in the right lower lobe. Biopsy shows carcinoid features with 3 mitoses/10 HPF and focal necrosis. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Atypical carcinoid tumor

    Atypical carcinoid is defined by 2–10 mitoses/10 HPF and/or foci of necrosis, distinguishing it from typical carcinoid (<2 mitoses/10 HPF, no necrosis); both differ from high-grade neuroendocrine tumors.

  6. A 38-year-old male returns from a camping trip in the Ohio River Valley with fever, night sweats, and a hilar mass on CXR. Serum LDH is mildly elevated. Urine Histoplasma antigen is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment?

    Answer: Itraconazole for 12 weeks

    Mild-to-moderate pulmonary histoplasmosis with symptoms >4 weeks (chronic or subacute) is treated with itraconazole for 6–12 weeks; amphotericin B is reserved for severe or disseminated disease.

  7. A 55-year-old male with newly diagnosed small cell lung cancer has disease confined to the right hemithorax and ipsilateral mediastinal nodes that can be encompassed in a radiation field. What is the classification and treatment approach?

    Answer: Limited-stage SCLC — concurrent chemoradiation

    Limited-stage SCLC (confined to one hemithorax within a tolerable radiation field) is treated with concurrent platinum-based chemotherapy and thoracic radiation, with prophylactic cranial irradiation if response is achieved.