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Infectious Disease Management Flashcards

7 cards from real ITE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Infectious Disease Management flashcards as text

  1. A 70-year-old man undergoes hip arthroplasty and develops fever and wound drainage at day 14. Joint aspiration grows MRSA. What is the antibiotic of choice for MRSA prosthetic joint infection?

    Answer: Vancomycin IV dosed to trough 15-20 mcg/mL

    Vancomycin IV remains the standard of care for MRSA prosthetic joint infections, typically combined with rifampin for biofilm penetration in device-associated infections.

  2. A 50-year-old immunocompromised patient presents with fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a pulmonary nodule with halo sign on CT. Galactomannan antigen returns elevated. What is the most appropriate initial antifungal?

    Answer: Voriconazole 6mg/kg IV q12h x 2 doses, then 4mg/kg q12h

    Voriconazole is the preferred first-line treatment for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis based on superior efficacy demonstrated in landmark clinical trials.

  3. A 28-year-old woman presents with fever, rash on palms and soles, and headache after camping in North Carolina in May. Peripheral smear shows no parasites but thrombocytopenia and hyponatremia are present. What is the treatment?

    Answer: Doxycycline 100mg BID

    Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii) is treated empirically with doxycycline 100mg BID, which should not be delayed awaiting confirmatory testing.

  4. A 65-year-old man with a mechanical aortic valve develops fever, positive blood cultures for viridans streptococcus, and a new perivalvular abscess on TEE. What does the abscess finding indicate?

    Answer: Cardiac surgery consultation is required

    Perivalvular abscess is a class I indication for urgent cardiac surgery in prosthetic valve endocarditis, as medical therapy alone is insufficient.

  5. A 45-year-old HIV-positive man (CD4 180, not on ART) is diagnosed with PCP pneumonia. His PaO2 on room air is 58 mmHg. In addition to TMP-SMX, what adjunctive therapy should be started?

    Answer: Systemic corticosteroids (prednisone 40mg BID)

    Adjunctive corticosteroids are indicated for PCP when PaO2 35 mmHg, as they reduce mortality by preventing inflammatory deterioration.

  6. A 22-year-old college student presents with fever, pharyngitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Heterophile antibody test is positive. Which complication requires activity restriction?

    Answer: Splenic rupture risk

    Splenic rupture is a rare but life-threatening complication of infectious mononucleosis; patients should avoid contact sports and strenuous activity for at least 3-4 weeks.

  7. A 55-year-old diabetic woman presents with right facial pain, black eschar on the palate, and periorbital edema. CT shows sinus involvement extending to the orbit. What is the likely pathogen?

    Answer: Mucor/Rhizopus species

    Rhinocerebral mucormycosis caused by Mucorales (Mucor/Rhizopus) classically occurs in diabetic ketoacidosis, presenting with black necrotic eschar and rapid orbital/CNS spread.