ITE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ITE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which medication is commonly used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease? → Propylthiouracil (PTU)
2. A patient presents with hypercalcemia, low PTH, elevated PTHrP, and a lung mass. What is the mechanism of hypercalcemia? → Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy via PTHrP
3. Which criterion must be met before transitioning a DKA patient from IV to subcutaneous insulin? → Anion gap closure AND ability to eat
4. A patient recovering from DKA develops worsening headache, confusion, and pupillary changes 6 hours into treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Cerebral edema
5. In DKA, which of the following best explains the Kussmaul breathing pattern seen on examination? → Respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis
6. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly responsible for fatal cardiac arrhythmias during DKA treatment? → Hypokalemia
7. Which of the following is the preferred initial fluid for a patient presenting with DKA and hemodynamic instability (BP 80/50)? → 0.9% NaCl at 1 L/hr bolus
8. A 22-year-old woman with Turner syndrome (45,X) presents for routine evaluation. Which endocrine complication is she at highest risk for? → Primary hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's)
9. What is the recommended diagnostic test for a patient presenting with acute chest pain and suspected myocardial infarction? → Electrocardiogram (ECG)
10. A patient on amiodarone develops fatigue, weight gain, and bradycardia. TSH is 42 mIU/L and free T4 is 0.4 ng/dL. What is the most appropriate management? → Start levothyroxine replacement
11. A 45-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes on metformin has an eGFR that drops to 28 mL/min/1.73m². Which medication adjustment is most appropriate? → Discontinue metformin
12. Which scoring system is used to prioritize liver transplant allocation in the United States? → MELD score
13. Which finding on thyroid ultrasound carries the HIGHEST risk of malignancy? → Hypoechoic nodule with microcalcifications and irregular margins
14. Which physical exam finding is most characteristic of severe aortic regurgitation? → Wide pulse pressure with bounding/water-hammer pulse
15. Which of the following patients with severe aortic stenosis requires concurrent coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) at the time of surgical AVR? → Patient with coronary stenosis of 70% in the LAD
16. A 55-year-old woman with severe mitral regurgitation has progressive LV enlargement (LVESD 47 mm) but remains asymptomatic with LVEF 60%. What is the next step? → Mitral valve repair or replacement
17. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for a patient presenting with chest pain and suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS)? → High-sensitivity troponin test
18. A 62-year-old man undergoes colonoscopy showing a 1.5 cm sessile serrated lesion in the ascending colon. When should surveillance colonoscopy be performed? → 3 years
19. A 58-year-old man with alcoholic cirrhosis develops confusion and asterixis. Ammonia level is elevated. Which treatment is most appropriate? → Lactulose
20. Which class of medications should be AVOIDED in patients with severe aortic stenosis presenting with systemic hypertension? → Nitrates and systemic vasodilators
21. Which finding on echocardiography is most consistent with severe mitral stenosis? → Mitral valve area of 1.0 cm²
22. A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4 is started on anticoagulation. Which anticoagulant requires routine INR monitoring? → Warfarin
23. A patient with sarcoidosis has bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on CXR but is asymptomatic. Spirometry is normal. What is the most appropriate management? → Observation and monitoring
24. A patient with Cushing's disease undergoes transsphenoidal surgery. Post-operatively, serum cortisol is 2 mcg/dL. What does this indicate? → Adrenal insufficiency requiring glucocorticoid replacement
25. Which of the following is the most appropriate insulin regimen for mild DKA (pH 7.25-7.30, patient alert and tolerating oral intake)? → Subcutaneous rapid-acting insulin only
26. A patient is found to have H. pylori infection on urea breath test after completing a PPI plus clarithromycin-based triple therapy. What is the best next step? → Bismuth quadruple therapy
27. What is the first-line treatment for acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? → Systemic corticosteroids and antibiotics
28. A 58-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain. Stress testing shows 2mm ST depression in leads V4-V6 at 5 METs. What is the most appropriate next step? → Refer for coronary angiography
29. A patient with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) develops worsening symptoms. Which intervention is contraindicated? → Nitrates for angina relief
30. Which of the following is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in athletes under 35 years of age in the United States? → Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy