ISP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ISP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Who is responsible for issuing the DD Form 254 to a subcontractor? → The prime contractor
2. An industrial facility's Emergency Operations Center (EOC) differs from the on-scene command post in that the EOC: → Provides strategic coordination and resource support removed from the hazard area
3. What does the SF 701 Activity Security Checklist document? → End-of-day security checks of a work area
4. What is the primary objective of crisis management? → To manage and mitigate the impact of a crisis
5. How often should cleared personnel typically receive refresher security training? → At least annually, with additional training when threats or requirements change
6. Can Top Secret material be sent through the U.S. Postal Service? → No, USPS is never authorized for Top Secret
7. Why is incident response planning important in security risk management? → To ensure a coordinated and effective response to security incidents
8. An industrial security professional receives a bomb threat call. The FIRST priority is to: → Keep the caller talking and gather as much information as possible
9. Under an SSA, access to which type of information requires a National Interest Determination (NID)? → Proscribed information such as Top Secret, SCI, SAP, RD, and COMSEC
10. Which license application is used for the export of classified defense articles or classified technical data? → DSP-85
11. A cleared contractor creates a new document using information from a classified source document. This activity is called: → Derivative classification
12. What is the role of surveillance systems in physical security? → To monitor and deter unauthorized activities
13. What is the DoD enterprise system used to create and distribute electronic DD Forms 254? → NCCS
14. An insider threat is BEST defined as a risk posed by which of the following? → Current or former employees, contractors, or partners who misuse authorized access
15. Which population typically receives the MOST targeted security training in an industrial facility due to their elevated access? → Systems administrators, security managers, and executives with privileged access
16. Under ITAR, what agreement authorizes a U.S. company to furnish defense services, such as engineering assistance, to a foreign person? → Technical Assistance Agreement
17. Who grants the authorization to operate (ATO) for a contractor classified information system under DCSA cognizance? → The DCSA Authorizing Official
18. Which system does DCSA use to process and record FCL information for cleared industry? → NISS
19. A key purpose of post-incident debriefs (After Action Reviews) in industrial crisis management is to: → Document lessons learned to improve future response
20. Which party can sponsor a company for an FCL? → A Government Contracting Activity or a cleared contractor with a legitimate need
21. Which form must a company complete to disclose foreign ownership, control, or influence for facility clearance purposes? → SF 328
22. Under 32 CFR Part 117 (NISPOM), which individual must a contractor appoint to oversee the security of its classified information systems? → Information System Security Manager (ISSM)
23. Unless the GCA says otherwise, how long may a contractor keep classified material after a contract ends? → 2 years
24. What is the primary goal of physical security in facility protection? → To protect facilities and assets from physical threats
25. When must a cleared employee complete initial insider threat awareness training? → Before being granted access to classified information
26. Which of the following is generally EXCLUDED from the ITAR definition of technical data? → Information in the public domain
27. What is the role of lighting in facility protection? → To enhance security by increasing visibility and deterring crime
28. Which category of emergency notification system is MOST critical for alerting off-site communities to an industrial chemical release? → Outdoor warning sirens combined with Emergency Alert System broadcasts
29. Why is access control important in facility security? → To limit access to secure areas and protect sensitive information
30. What is the purpose of security awareness training? → To help employees recognize and respond to security risks