Internal Medicine Exam Common Infectious Diseases 5 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A 40-year-old patient develops fever, headache, and a petechial rash spreading from wrists and ankles centrally after a camping trip in North Carolina. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Meningococcemia
- Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Correct answer)
- Lyme disease
- Ehrlichiosis
Correct answer: Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii) classically begins with fever and headache before a centripetal petechial rash appears on wrists and ankles; immediate doxycycline is life-saving.
Question 2: Which antibiotic is first-line for treatment of Lyme disease presenting with erythema migrans in an adult?
- Amoxicillin IV for 28 days
- Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10–21 days (Correct answer)
- Ceftriaxone 2g IV for 14 days
- Azithromycin 500mg once daily for 7 days
Correct answer: Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10–21 days
Doxycycline orally for 10–21 days is first-line for early Lyme disease (erythema migrans) in adults; IV ceftriaxone is reserved for neurologic or cardiac involvement.
Question 3: A patient with recurrent furunculosis caused by MRSA is cleared but continues to have household transmission. Which decolonization strategy is most appropriate?
- Oral clindamycin prophylaxis indefinitely
- Intranasal mupirocin ointment plus chlorhexidine body wash (Correct answer)
- Systemic vancomycin for all household contacts
- No treatment needed after the index case resolves
Correct answer: Intranasal mupirocin ointment plus chlorhexidine body wash
Intranasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine bathing decolonize MRSA carriage in both the index patient and household contacts, reducing recurrence.
Question 4: A 65-year-old immunocompromised patient develops fever and a new pulmonary infiltrate with a halo sign on CT chest. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
- Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis (Correct answer)
- Cytomegalovirus pneumonitis
- Bacterial lung abscess
Correct answer: Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
The halo sign (ground-glass opacity surrounding a nodule) on CT chest in an immunocompromised host is classic for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis.
Question 5: A 50-year-old patient with cirrhosis presents with fever, abdominal pain, and ascites with PMN count > 250 cells/μL on paracentesis. What is the empiric treatment of choice?
- Metronidazole plus ciprofloxacin
- IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) (Correct answer)
- Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- Piperacillin-tazobactam plus vancomycin
Correct answer: IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)
IV third-generation cephalosporins (cefotaxime or ceftriaxone) are the standard empiric therapy for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.
Question 6: Which HIV-associated opportunistic infection is prevented by trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole prophylaxis when the CD4 count falls below 200 cells/μL?
- Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis only
- Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) and Toxoplasma (Correct answer)
- Mycobacterium avium complex
- Cytomegalovirus retinitis
Correct answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) and Toxoplasma
TMP-SMX prophylaxis at CD4 < 200 cells/μL prevents both PCP and Toxoplasma encephalitis (the latter when CD4 < 100 and Toxoplasma IgG positive).
Question 7: A traveler returns from Southeast Asia with watery diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal cramps starting 6 hours after eating rice. No fever is present. Which pathogen is most consistent with this presentation?
- Vibrio cholerae
- Salmonella typhi
- Bacillus cereus (emetic toxin) (Correct answer)
- Campylobacter jejuni
Correct answer: Bacillus cereus (emetic toxin)
Bacillus cereus emetic syndrome presents within 1–6 hours of ingesting preformed toxin in starchy foods like rice, causing vomiting and cramps without fever.
A 40-year-old patient develops fever, headache, and a petechial rash spreading from wrists and ankles centrally after a camping trip in North Carolina.
What is the most likely diagnosis?