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Hematology Flashcards

7 cards from real Internal Medicine Exam practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ€” missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Hematology flashcards as text
  1. A patient has a prolonged PT but normal aPTT. Deficiency of which coagulation factor is most likely responsible?

    Answer: Factor VII

    Factor VII is the only coagulation factor exclusive to the extrinsic pathway; its deficiency prolongs PT without affecting aPTT.

  2. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) typically develops at what time point after heparin initiation?

    Answer: 5-10 days after starting heparin

    Classic HIT (type II) develops 5-10 days after starting heparin due to the time required for antibody formation against platelet factor 4-heparin complexes.

  3. Von Willebrand disease most characteristically presents with which bleeding pattern?

    Answer: Mucocutaneous bleeding such as epistaxis and menorrhagia

    Von Willebrand disease impairs platelet adhesion and primary hemostasis, leading to mucocutaneous bleeding; hemarthroses are more typical of hemophilia.

  4. Which laboratory test is used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy?

    Answer: Prothrombin time/INR (PT/INR)

    Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X), which are measured by the PT/INR; the aPTT monitors heparin therapy.

  5. Which combination of laboratory findings is most characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

    Answer: Elevated D-dimer, prolonged PT/aPTT, low fibrinogen, and thrombocytopenia

    DIC involves simultaneous widespread coagulation and fibrinolysis, consuming clotting factors and platelets, resulting in elevated D-dimer, prolonged PT/aPTT, low fibrinogen, and thrombocytopenia.

  6. A patient with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is at highest risk for which complication?

    Answer: Arterial and venous thrombosis and recurrent pregnancy loss

    APS is a thrombophilic condition caused by antiphospholipid antibodies that promote clotting, leading to arterial/venous thrombosis and recurrent pregnancy loss.

  7. Which anticoagulant requires NO dose adjustment in patients with severe renal failure?

    Answer: Warfarin

    Warfarin is hepatically metabolized and has no significant renal excretion, making it the anticoagulant that does not require dose adjustment in renal failure.