A client who has always been classified as 'growth' oriented suddenly asks to move entirely to GICs after a market downturn. What is the best interpretation of this behaviour for KYC purposes?
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A
The original KYC was incorrect and must be corrected retroactively
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B
The client's risk tolerance may have changed and the KYC file should be reviewed and updated
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C
The representative should override the request because it conflicts with the prior profile
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D
Market-driven decisions do not require a KYC update