IFC Investment Strategies 4 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which investment strategy is most appropriate for an investor who wants to ensure that a specific sum is available at a future date regardless of market fluctuations?
- Immunization (Correct answer)
- Duration extension
- Yield curve steepening trade
- Momentum strategy
Correct answer: Immunization
Immunization matches the duration of assets to a specific liability date, ensuring the target sum is available even if interest rates change.
Question 2: A Canadian fund manager who increases equity exposure when valuations are low and reduces it when valuations are high is practicing:
- Passive rebalancing
- Contrarian tactical asset allocation (Correct answer)
- Momentum-based sector rotation
- Constant-mix strategy
Correct answer: Contrarian tactical asset allocation
Contrarian tactical asset allocation increases exposure to asset classes that appear undervalued and reduces it when they appear overvalued, betting against prevailing sentiment.
Question 3: What does a negative information ratio indicate about an active fund manager?
- The manager has taken on less risk than the benchmark
- The manager's active bets have detracted value relative to the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis (Correct answer)
- The fund has experienced negative absolute returns
- The manager charges fees above the industry average
Correct answer: The manager's active bets have detracted value relative to the benchmark on a risk-adjusted basis
A negative information ratio means active return (alpha) is negative relative to tracking error, indicating the manager's decisions have subtracted value.
Question 4: In a 'covered call' options strategy applied to a Canadian equity fund, the fund manager:
- Buys call options to gain leveraged upside exposure
- Sells call options on holdings to generate premium income while capping upside (Correct answer)
- Buys put options to protect against downside losses
- Sells put options to acquire shares at a lower price
Correct answer: Sells call options on holdings to generate premium income while capping upside
A covered call involves selling call options on existing holdings to collect premium income, which enhances yield but limits participation if the stock rises sharply.
Question 5: Which of the following best describes the 'buy-and-hold' approach to investing in mutual funds?
- Continuously rebalancing to maintain target weights
- Purchasing fund units and retaining them regardless of short-term market movements (Correct answer)
- Shifting allocations monthly based on technical indicators
- Selling underperforming funds every quarter
Correct answer: Purchasing fund units and retaining them regardless of short-term market movements
Buy-and-hold investors purchase assets and maintain positions long-term, avoiding frequent trading costs and the risk of mistimed market exits.
Question 6: A mutual fund that caps maximum single-security weights at 10% and individual-sector weights at 25% is applying which risk management principle?
- Leverage constraints
- Concentration limits / diversification rules (Correct answer)
- Liability-driven investing
- Absolute value at risk limits
Correct answer: Concentration limits / diversification rules
Setting maximum weights per security and sector enforces diversification by preventing over-concentration in any single holding or industry.
Question 7: Under the IFC curriculum, which statement about 'lifecycle' or 'target-date' funds is correct?
- They maintain a fixed equity/bond split for the investor's entire holding period
- They automatically shift to a more conservative asset mix as the target retirement date approaches (Correct answer)
- They invest solely in money market instruments after the target date
- They require the investor to manually adjust allocations each year
Correct answer: They automatically shift to a more conservative asset mix as the target retirement date approaches
Target-date funds follow a glide path that progressively reduces equity exposure and increases fixed income as the target date nears, reducing risk automatically.
Which investment strategy is most appropriate for an investor who wants to ensure that a specific sum is available at a future date regardless of market fluctuations?