ID BAR Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ID BAR facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. In Idaho, what is the standard for dividing marital property in a divorce proceeding? → Equitable Distribution
2. Which of the following hearsay exceptions requires the declarant to be unavailable? → Statement against interest (FRE 804(b)(3))
3. Under Idaho Rule of Civil Procedure 12(b)(6), a defendant may move to dismiss a complaint for which of the following reasons? → Failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
4. Which of the following is most likely to be considered an exception to the Fourth Amendment's warrant requirement? → Conducting a search incident to a lawful arrest.
5. Under the mirror image rule, an acceptance that adds new terms is treated as: → A counteroffer that rejects the original offer
6. Which of the following best describes an “easement appurtenant” in Idaho? → An easement that benefits the land itself and transfers with the land when sold
7. When a party to a contract learns the other party will not perform before the performance date, this is called: → Anticipatory repudiation
8. Under the parol evidence rule, extrinsic evidence is generally inadmissible to: → Contradict or vary the terms of a final integrated written agreement
9. Which of the following is a non-hearsay prior statement under FRE 801(d)(1)? → A witness's prior statement identifying a person made after perceiving them
10. Under Idaho's venue rules, where is venue generally proper in a tort action? → In the county where the cause of action arose or where the defendant resides
11. Which of the following describes the doctrine of forum non conveniens in Idaho? → A court may dismiss or stay an action if another forum is substantially more convenient
12. Which of the following statements about judicial notice under FRE 201 is correct? → In a civil case, the jury must accept a judicially noticed adjudicative fact as conclusive
13. Under Idaho's work product doctrine, which of the following is absolutely protected from discovery? → Attorney's mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, and legal theories
14. Which of the following elements is NOT required to prove intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED) in Idaho? → Physical injury accompanying the emotional distress
15. In Idaho, a parent who wishes to relocate with a minor child to another state generally must: → Obtain the written consent of the other parent or court approval before relocating
16. Under the attorney-client privilege, which of the following communications is NOT protected? → Communications made in furtherance of a crime or fraud
17. Under Idaho law, which of the following is a recognized fault-based ground for divorce? → Adultery
18. Which of the following principles is most closely associated with the concept of “substantive due process”? → The right to be free from arbitrary governmentally interference with fundamental rights.
19. When dividing community property in an Idaho divorce, the court is required to: → Divide community property substantially equally between the spouses
20. Under Idaho community property law, debts incurred by one spouse during marriage for household necessities are generally: → Community debts for which both spouses may be liable
21. Under strict liability for abnormally dangerous activities, which factor is NOT relevant under the Restatement (Second) § 520? → Whether the defendant had adequate liability insurance
22. In Idaho, a notice of appeal from a district court judgment must be filed within: → 42 days
23. Which of the following contracts is within the statute of frauds under the common law? → A contract that cannot be performed within one year from its making
24. Which doctrine allows a party to enforce a promise even without consideration when the party has reasonably relied on the promise to their detriment? → Promissory estoppel
25. Which of the following is a valid exception to the exclusionary rule? → Evidence obtained from an illegal search can be admitted if it was obtained in good faith.
26. In Idaho, the learned intermediary doctrine in pharmaceutical products liability provides that: → A drug manufacturer's duty to warn runs to the prescribing physician, not the patient
27. Under FRE 407, evidence of subsequent remedial measures is inadmissible to prove: → Negligence or culpable conduct
28. Under Idaho law, how does a court treat a child's expressed preference regarding custody arrangements? → It is one factor the court may consider regardless of the child's age
29. Under FRE 803(1), a present sense impression is admissible as an exception to the hearsay rule when the statement: → Describes an event made while perceiving it or immediately after
30. Under I.R.C.P. 55, a default judgment may be entered when a party: → Fails to plead or otherwise defend within the required time