Risk Assessment & Management Flashcards
7 cards from real IAR practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Risk Assessment & Management flashcards as text
A client has a portfolio with a beta of 1.4. If the market declines by 10%, what is the expected portfolio decline?
Answer: 14%
Beta measures systematic risk; a beta of 1.4 means the portfolio is expected to move 1.4 times the market, so a 10% market decline implies a 14% portfolio decline.
Which of the following best describes 'liquidity risk' in the context of investment management?
Answer: The risk that an asset cannot be sold quickly without a significant price concession
Liquidity risk is the danger that an investor cannot exit a position at a fair price due to insufficient market activity or depth.
An IAR is reviewing a 70-year-old client's portfolio heavily weighted in small-cap growth stocks. The primary risk concern is:
Answer: Time horizon and volatility risk
A 70-year-old typically has a short time horizon, making high-volatility small-cap stocks inappropriate because there is limited time to recover from significant losses.
Standard deviation is used in portfolio analysis primarily to measure:
Answer: The total variability of returns around the mean
Standard deviation quantifies how much a portfolio's returns deviate from its average return, serving as a measure of total risk.
A client is concerned about sequence-of-returns risk. This risk is most relevant for clients who are:
Answer: Beginning to draw down their portfolio in retirement
Sequence-of-returns risk is the danger that poor early returns during the withdrawal phase can permanently deplete a portfolio before recovery can occur.
Which risk management technique involves allocating a fixed percentage of a portfolio to different asset classes and periodically restoring those percentages?
Answer: Rebalancing
Rebalancing restores a portfolio to its target asset allocation by selling appreciated assets and buying underperforming ones.
A client asks about the Sharpe Ratio. An IAR should explain that it measures:
Answer: Excess return per unit of total risk (standard deviation)
The Sharpe Ratio divides a portfolio's excess return (above the risk-free rate) by its standard deviation to indicate reward per unit of total risk.