Ham Radio General Class Test Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Ham Radio General Class Test facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When performing an RF safety evaluation, which of the following factors does NOT affect the calculated safe distance? → The color of the antenna insulation
2. What is the approximate speed at which radio waves travel through free space? → 300,000,000 meters per second
3. Which statement about General class VHF/UHF privileges is correct? → General class operators have full privileges on all VHF and UHF amateur bands
4. What type of feed line loss increases significantly when the line is operated with high SWR? → Coaxial cable
5. What is the primary radiation pattern of a simple quarter-wavelength vertical antenna installed with a good ground-plane system? → Omnidirectional in the horizontal plane.
6. What is the primary purpose of the FCC's RF exposure regulations for amateur radio operators? → To protect people from harmful biological effects of RF energy
7. What is the purpose of a balun used at the feedpoint of a dipole antenna? → Convert balanced antenna impedance to unbalanced coaxial cable
8. Which practice is recommended to minimize interference when using a directional antenna? → Orient the antenna to direct your signal toward the intended station
9. When performing a routine RF exposure evaluation, which amateur station characteristic requires the LEAST consideration? → The modulation type used
10. What is the standard baud rate used for Baudot RTTY on HF amateur radio bands? → 45.45 baud
11. Which emission type is FT8, a popular digital mode used on HF bands? → A weak-signal digital mode using 8-tone frequency shift keying
12. What is the result of operating a coaxial feed line well above its rated maximum frequency? → Excessive signal loss due to increased attenuation
13. What is the purpose of a voluntary band plan? → To reduce interference between different modes of operation
14. What simplex frequency is commonly used for emergency HF communications by ARES groups in the 40-meter phone band? → 7.285 MHz
15. What may a ground loop in your station's audio connections manifest as? → You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
16. Which software application is the primary platform for operating FT8, FT4, WSPR, and other weak-signal modes? → WSJT-X
17. Which of the following represents a method of making contact with a gateway station for a digital messaging system? → Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
18. Which sideband is conventionally used for voice transmissions on frequencies below 10 MHz? → Lower sideband (LSB)
19. What is the purpose of a balun in an antenna system? → To convert between balanced and unbalanced systems
20. Which body parts are considered most vulnerable to RF energy exposure? → Eyes and reproductive organs
21. What is the reactance of a 50 microhenry inductor at a frequency of 3.5 MHz? → 1,099 ohms
22. What is the function of a low-pass filter installed between a transmitter and the antenna? → Reduce harmonic emissions that could cause interference
23. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FT8 signal? → 50 Hz
24. Which sideband is conventionally used for voice transmissions on frequencies below 10 MHz? → Lower sideband (LSB)
25. What is the approximate voltage across a forward-biased silicon diode junction? → 0.7 volts
26. What type of semiconductor component increases its resistance as temperature rises? → Positive Temperature Coefficient (PTC) thermistor
27. What is the purpose of the automatic level control (ALC) circuit in an HF transceiver? → Prevent the power amplifier stages from being overdriven and generating distortion
28. Which of the following describes the velocity factor of a feed line? → The speed at which a signal travels through the line compared to the speed of light
29. What is the primary cause of ionospheric absorption of HF radio signals? → D-layer ionization during daylight hours
30. What age must a person be to be eligible to become a certified Volunteer Examiner? → 18 year