FAA Glider Pilot Certificate (Knowledge Test) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A glider's pitot-static system provides data for which combination of instruments?

Vertical speed indicator, yaw string, and altimeter
Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator
Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator (variometer) (Correct answer)
Airspeed indicator, compass, and variometer

Correct answer: Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator (variometer)

The pitot-static system measures and compares ram air pressure (from the pitot tube) and static pressure (from the static port). This information is used by the airspeed indicator, the altimeter (which uses only static pressure), and the vertical speed indicator or variometer (which measures the rate of change of static pressure).

Question 2: What is the primary aerodynamic effect a glider experiences when flying very close to the ground, such as during the final flare for landing?

A loss of aileron effectiveness due to disrupted airflow.
A significant increase in parasite drag due to air compression.
An increase in induced drag, causing the glider to sink rapidly.
A reduction in induced drag, causing the glider to 'float' further. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A reduction in induced drag, causing the glider to 'float' further.

When a glider flies within approximately one wingspan of the ground, it enters 'ground effect'. This phenomenon interferes with the formation of wingtip vortices, which are a primary cause of induced drag. The reduction in induced drag makes the wing more efficient, causing the glider to float a longer distance than it would otherwise.

Question 3: What weather condition is indicated by lenticular clouds?

Approaching warm front.
Strong mountain wave activity. (Correct answer)
Low humidity.
Calm, clear skies.

Correct answer: Strong mountain wave activity.

Lenticular clouds form in mountainous regions and indicate strong, turbulent winds aloft.

Question 4: What is the primary cause of loss of control accidents in general aviation, including gliders?

Sudden unexpected weather changes
Mechanical failure of primary controls
Pilot decision-making errors and distraction (Correct answer)
Air traffic control errors

Correct answer: Pilot decision-making errors and distraction

FAA accident data consistently shows that pilot decision-making errors and distraction are the leading causes of loss of control accidents.

Question 5: A glider pilot is planning a flight that will pass through a designated Class F advisory (CYA) airspace. What is required of the pilot before entering this airspace?

No specific permission is required, but the pilot should be aware of the nature of the advisory area. (Correct answer)
The pilot must file a flight plan and receive a specific clearance.
The pilot is restricted from entering this airspace under all circumstances.
The pilot must establish two-way radio communication with the controlling agency.

Correct answer: No specific permission is required, but the pilot should be aware of the nature of the advisory area.

Class F advisory airspace (CYA) is designated for activities like flight training, hang gliding, or military operations. While no special permission is required for VFR aircraft to enter, pilots should be aware of the activities within and exercise caution.

Question 6: When should a pilot consider deploying the emergency parachute system?

During any turbulence.
When control is irrecoverable and terrain impact is imminent. (Correct answer)
At the first sign of a spin.
During a low-altitude rope break.

Correct answer: When control is irrecoverable and terrain impact is imminent.

The parachute is a last resort for unrecoverable situations (e.g., structural failure or mid-air collision).

Question 7: How should spoilers be used during final approach?

Used progressively to adjust glide path (Correct answer)
Deployed fully throughout approach
Pulsed rapidly for steering
Not used at all during approach

Correct answer: Used progressively to adjust glide path

Spoiler management is crucial for precision landings.

Question 8: A pilot is flying a glider with a published best glide ratio of 40:1 in still air. From an altitude of 5,280 feet above the ground, what is the maximum horizontal distance the glider can travel?

52.8 nautical miles
40 statute miles
40 nautical miles
211,200 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 211,200 feet

A glide ratio of 40:1 means the glider can travel 40 feet horizontally for every 1 foot of altitude lost. From 5,280 feet (1 statute mile) of altitude, the maximum horizontal distance is 40 times the altitude: 40 * 5,280 feet = 211,200 feet. This is equivalent to 40 statute miles.

Question 9: What is the primary function of a total energy compensated variometer?

To measure the potential energy of the glider based on its altitude.
To indicate the rate of climb or descent due only to the movement of the surrounding air mass. (Correct answer)
To provide an audible warning of excessive airspeed.
To show the glider's vertical speed relative to the ground.

Correct answer: To indicate the rate of climb or descent due only to the movement of the surrounding air mass.

A total energy (TE) compensated variometer filters out changes in vertical speed caused by the pilot's control inputs (i.e., converting kinetic energy to potential energy, or 'stick thermals'). It aims to only show the vertical movement of the air the glider is flying through, which is crucial for locating and utilizing thermals for soaring.

Question 10: While performing a coordinated right turn in a glider, how are the primary flight controls manipulated?

Stick moves right, left rudder pedal is pressed.
Stick moves right, right rudder pedal is pressed. (Correct answer)
Stick moves left, right rudder pedal is pressed.
Stick moves back, right rudder pedal is pressed.

Correct answer: Stick moves right, right rudder pedal is pressed.

To initiate a coordinated right turn, the pilot moves the control stick to the right to actuate the ailerons, causing the glider to roll. Simultaneously, the pilot applies right rudder pressure to counteract adverse yaw and keep the nose of the glider aligned with the flight path. Elevator back pressure is then typically required to maintain altitude in the turn.

Question 11: What is the primary cause of wind?

Differences in atmospheric pressure. (Correct answer)
Magnetic fields.
Ocean currents.
Rotation of the Earth.

Correct answer: Differences in atmospheric pressure.

Wind is caused by differences in atmospheric pressure due to uneven heating of the Earth's surface.

Question 12: Which of the following is a critical part of the pre-takeoff checklist, often remembered by the mnemonic 'CISTRS' or a similar variation?

Checking that controls are free and correct. (Correct answer)
Reviewing the day's weather forecast.
Calculating the final glide ratio to a nearby airport.
Confirming the tow pilot's flight plan.

Correct answer: Checking that controls are free and correct.

A standard pre-takeoff checklist, often using a mnemonic like CISTRSC (Controls, Instruments, Straps, Trim, Release, Spoilers, Canopy), always includes a check for full, free, and correct movement of all flight controls (ailerons, elevator, and rudder). This ensures the glider is controllable before the launch begins.

Question 13: A glider pilot is flying in the Southern Domestic Airspace of Canada at an altitude above 3,000 feet AGL. According to the cruising altitude order, which altitudes are appropriate for a magnetic track of 270°?

Even thousands of feet ASL. (Correct answer)
Odd thousands of feet plus 500 feet ASL.
Odd thousands of feet ASL.
Even thousands of feet plus 500 feet ASL.

Correct answer: Even thousands of feet ASL.

When flying VFR in the Southern Domestic Airspace at more than 3,000 feet AGL, an aircraft on a magnetic track between 180° and 359° (westerly) must fly at an even thousand-foot altitude (e.g., 4,000', 6,000'). Eastbound traffic uses odd thousands.

Question 14: During an off-field landing, the pilot establishes a "high key" position. What is the primary purpose of this specific point in the emergency landing pattern?

To act as a high-altitude reference point from which a shortened circuit can be reliably flown, ensuring the field is reachable. (Correct answer)
To be the point where the pre-landing checklist is initiated for the first time.
To signal to other aircraft the intention to land by flying directly over the center of the field.
To serve as the final go/no-go decision point for committing to the chosen field.

Correct answer: To act as a high-altitude reference point from which a shortened circuit can be reliably flown, ensuring the field is reachable.

The "high key" position, typically upwind of the landing area at a specific altitude (e.g., 800-1000 ft AGL), is a crucial reference point in a planned off-field landing pattern. Its purpose is to ensure the pilot has sufficient altitude (potential energy) to assess the field, plan and fly a circuit (downwind, base, final), and adjust for wind, guaranteeing they can reach the landing threshold with adequate energy to flare.

Question 15: A pilot is planning a cross-country thermal flight. Which weather characteristic would be MOST detrimental to a successful soaring day?

Scattered cumulus clouds with bases at 6,000 feet AGL.
A high-pressure system with a strong capping inversion at a low altitude. (Correct answer)
A dry adiabatic lapse rate from the surface up to 8,000 feet.
A light surface wind that increases to 15 knots at 3,000 feet.

Correct answer: A high-pressure system with a strong capping inversion at a low altitude.

A strong capping inversion at a low altitude acts like a lid on the atmosphere, preventing warm air parcels (thermals) from rising very high. [11, 12] Even if the sun heats the ground effectively, the thermals will be stopped by this stable layer, resulting in weak, short-lived lift and making it impossible to gain significant altitude for a cross-country flight. The other options are generally favorable: scattered cumulus clouds mark thermals, increasing wind can help organize thermals into streets, and a dry adiabatic lapse rate indicates instability needed for thermals to form. [11, 15, 31]

Question 16: A glider pilot is flying near the coast on a warm, sunny day with light general winds. They notice a line of small cumulus clouds forming a few miles inland, parallel to the coastline. This visual cue most likely indicates the presence of:

Orographic lift generated by coastal hills.
A katabatic wind flowing from the land to the sea.
The remnants of an overnight temperature inversion.
A sea breeze front with potential for soarable lift. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A sea breeze front with potential for soarable lift.

On a warm, sunny day with light prevailing winds, the land heats up faster than the adjacent sea. This creates a pressure difference, causing cooler, denser air from the sea to move inland. This leading edge of cool air is called a sea breeze front. [1, 36] As it pushes the warmer, moist inland air upward, it often triggers condensation and forms a line of cumulus clouds, which marks a line of potential lift for soaring. [1, 33]

Question 17: A glider pilot who feels invulnerable and takes unnecessary risks is exhibiting which hazardous attitude?

Impulsivity
Invulnerability (Correct answer)
Anti-authority
Macho

Correct answer: Invulnerability

The hazardous attitude of invulnerability is the belief that accidents happen to others but not to oneself, leading to underestimation of real risks.

Question 18: How does increasing the all-up weight of a glider (e.g., by adding water ballast) affect its performance, assuming the pilot flies at the correct corresponding airspeeds?

It decreases the best glide ratio (L/D max).
It has no effect on the best glide ratio but increases the best glide speed. (Correct answer)
It decreases both the best glide speed and the minimum sink speed.
It increases the best glide ratio (L/D max).

Correct answer: It has no effect on the best glide ratio but increases the best glide speed.

A glider's lift-to-drag ratio (L/D max), which determines its best glide angle, is an aerodynamic property of its design and is not affected by weight. However, to achieve that same L/D ratio at a higher weight, the glider must fly at a higher airspeed. The minimum sink rate will also increase, but the glide ratio for a given starting altitude remains the same.

Question 19: What does a rising barometric pressure typically indicate?

Increased turbulence.
Stable or improving weather. (Correct answer)
Approaching storm.
Heavy precipitation.

Correct answer: Stable or improving weather.

Rising pressure usually means improving weather conditions, while falling pressure suggests worsening weather.

Question 20: What does a steady white light gun signal mean to an aircraft on the ground?

Stop and hold position
Return to starting point on the airport (Correct answer)
Cleared for takeoff
Cleared to taxi to the runway

Correct answer: Return to starting point on the airport

A steady white light to an aircraft on the ground means return to the starting point on the airport.

Question 21: A placard in a glider cockpit reads 'Intentional spins prohibited.' This means:

The placard is advisory; experienced pilots may spin the glider
The aircraft is NOT approved for intentional spins and the pilot must avoid them (Correct answer)
Spins are allowed only with an instructor on board
The prohibition applies only to solo student pilots

Correct answer: The aircraft is NOT approved for intentional spins and the pilot must avoid them

A placard stating spins are prohibited is an airworthiness limitation; the aircraft has not been certified for intentional spin entry and may not recover predictably.

Question 22: Under the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), what is the minimum age requirement to be issued a Pilot Licence - Glider?

18 years old
16 years old (Correct answer)
15 years old
14 years old

Correct answer: 16 years old

According to the regulations governing pilot licensing in Canada, an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence - Glider must be at least 16 years of age. The minimum age for a student pilot to solo is 14.

Question 23: Which statement best describes correct radio communication phraseology?

Informal language is preferred at non-towered airports
Communication is optional when light gun signals are available
Standard phraseology should be used for brevity and to reduce misunderstandings (Correct answer)
Pilots should use as many words as possible to be completely clear

Correct answer: Standard phraseology should be used for brevity and to reduce misunderstandings

Standard aviation phraseology improves clarity, reduces frequency congestion, and minimizes miscommunications.

Question 24: Which of the following is a primary hazard associated with flying in the rotor zone of a mountain wave system?

Consistent, widespread updrafts of over 1,000 feet per minute.
Severe to extreme turbulence and strong downdrafts. (Correct answer)
Widespread fog and poor visibility.
Extremely smooth, laminar airflow.

Correct answer: Severe to extreme turbulence and strong downdrafts.

The rotor is an area of extreme turbulence that forms at low altitudes on the lee side of a mountain, underneath the primary wave crests. [3, 10] It is characterized by chaotic, rotating air masses that can produce severe to extreme turbulence, strong updrafts, and powerful downdrafts, posing a significant structural and control hazard to any aircraft, especially gliders. [3, 10] The air in the rotor is anything but smooth.

Question 25: A glider pilot notices the yaw string is missing from the canopy before departure. What should the pilot do?

Proceed with flight, relying solely on the slip/skid ball
Replace or substitute it before flight, as it is the primary slip/skid indicator for gliders (Correct answer)
Delay flight until an instrument technician inspects the aircraft
File a maintenance log entry and defer the item

Correct answer: Replace or substitute it before flight, as it is the primary slip/skid indicator for gliders

The yaw string is the primary and most sensitive coordination indicator in a glider; flying without it removes the pilot's main tool for detecting uncoordinated flight.

Question 26: What is the dew point?

The temperature at which air becomes saturated. (Correct answer)
The highest temperature of the day.
The temperature inside a cloud.
The freezing point of water at altitude.

Correct answer: The temperature at which air becomes saturated.

The dew point is the temperature at which air becomes saturated, leading to condensation (e.g., fog or dew).

Question 27: Which of the following aerodynamic forces acts perpendicular to the relative wind?

Thrust
Lift (Correct answer)
Weight
Drag

Correct answer: Lift

By definition, lift is the aerodynamic force that acts perpendicular to the direction of the relative wind. Drag acts parallel to the relative wind, and weight acts vertically toward the center of the Earth. A glider has no thrust.

Question 28: Which airspace class requires an explicit ATC clearance (not just radio contact) before entry?

Class B (Correct answer)
Class C
Class D
Class E

Correct answer: Class B

Class B airspace requires an explicit ATC clearance before entry, not just two-way radio communication.

Question 29: A glider pilot wants to maximize the time spent in the air to take advantage of a thermal. Which speed should the pilot aim to fly at?

Best lift/drag ratio (L/D max) speed
Minimum sink speed (Correct answer)
Never exceed speed (Vne)
Maneuvering speed (Va)

Correct answer: Minimum sink speed

Minimum sink speed is the airspeed at which the glider has the lowest rate of descent, thus maximizing the time it can stay aloft. This is the ideal speed for circling in a thermal to gain altitude. Best L/D max speed maximizes distance covered, not time.

Question 30: What is the purpose of a 'speed-to-fly' calculation in gliding?

To comply with air traffic control
To estimate fuel consumption
To determine the maximum speed limit
To calculate the optimal airspeed for best glide ratio (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To calculate the optimal airspeed for best glide ratio

Speed-to-fly calculations are critical for glider pilots to optimize their flight path. This involves determining the optimal airspeed to fly between thermals to achieve the best possible glide ratio, minimizing altitude loss and maximizing distance covered. It helps pilots efficiently transition between areas of lift, conserving energy for longer flights.

Question 31: Which of the following is a symptom of hyperventilation that a glider pilot might experience at high altitude?

Elevated heart rate with no dizziness
Tingling in the fingers and lightheadedness (Correct answer)
Increased alertness and sharp vision
Tunnel vision only

Correct answer: Tingling in the fingers and lightheadedness

Hyperventilation causes excessive CO2 expulsion, leading to tingling extremities, lightheadedness, and potentially fainting if not corrected.

Question 32: What is the maximum allowable time between transponder tests and inspections under 14 CFR Part 91?

36 calendar months
24 calendar months (Correct answer)
12 calendar months
6 calendar months

Correct answer: 24 calendar months

14 CFR 91.413 requires that transponders used in controlled airspace be tested and inspected every 24 calendar months.

Question 33: What is the primary purpose of using rudder during a glider turn?

To maintain coordinated flight (Correct answer)
To increase the turn rate
To decrease airspeed
To activate the spoilers

Correct answer: To maintain coordinated flight

During a glider turn, the rudder is primarily used in conjunction with the ailerons to maintain coordinated flight. Coordinated flight means the glider is turning without slipping (moving sideways towards the inside of the turn) or skidding (moving sideways towards the outside of the turn). This is essential for efficiency, comfort, and preventing stalls, ensuring smooth and safe maneuvers.

Question 34: What is the purpose of performing an 'energy check' on final approach?

To test the radio equipment
To check battery levels
To calculate remaining flight time
To assess altitude and airspeed for landing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To assess altitude and airspeed for landing

Energy management ensures reaching the intended landing point.

Question 35: When operating a glider in uncontrolled Class G airspace in Canada, which of the following is true?

The pilot must still adhere to regulations concerning minimum altitudes and distances from persons or property. (Correct answer)
All flights must be conducted under a flight plan filed with NAV CANADA.
The pilot is exempt from all Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs).
A transponder is mandatory for all flights above 3,000 feet AGL.

Correct answer: The pilot must still adhere to regulations concerning minimum altitudes and distances from persons or property.

While Class G is uncontrolled airspace, pilots are not exempt from all regulations. The Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) regarding minimum safe altitudes and distances from people, vessels, vehicles, and structures on the surface still apply.

Question 36: If the static port on a glider becomes blocked during flight, how will the altimeter and airspeed indicator be affected?

The altimeter will indicate a continuous climb, and the airspeed indicator will read higher than actual.
Both instruments will read zero.
The altimeter will be unaffected, but the airspeed indicator will read zero.
The altimeter will freeze at the altitude where the blockage occurred, and the airspeed indicator will be inaccurate. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The altimeter will freeze at the altitude where the blockage occurred, and the airspeed indicator will be inaccurate.

If the static port becomes blocked, the altimeter will no longer sense changes in ambient air pressure and will remain fixed at the altitude of the blockage. The airspeed indicator will also be affected; it will read lower than the actual airspeed as the glider descends and higher than the actual airspeed as it climbs from the altitude where the blockage occurred, because the trapped static pressure is no longer correct for the current altitude.

Question 37: Which cloud type is most likely to produce thunderstorms?

Stratus.
Altostratus.
Cumulonimbus. (Correct answer)
Cirrus.

Correct answer: Cumulonimbus.

Cumulonimbus clouds are large, vertically developed clouds associated with thunderstorms and severe weather.

Question 38: Hypoxia in a glider pilot is most likely to occur when soaring at altitudes above:

10,000 feet MSL (Correct answer)
5,000 feet MSL
3,000 feet MSL
1,500 feet MSL

Correct answer: 10,000 feet MSL

Significant hypoxia symptoms typically begin above 10,000 feet MSL, and FAA regulations require supplemental oxygen above 14,000 feet for more than 30 minutes.

Question 39: If a glider pilot loses radio communication while operating in Class C airspace, the proper action is to:

Continue flight without change since no clearance is required
Land immediately at the nearest airport
Climb above 10,000 feet to exit the airspace
Attempt to reestablish contact and safely depart the airspace (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Attempt to reestablish contact and safely depart the airspace

The pilot should attempt to reestablish communication and, while watching for light gun signals, safely exit the Class C airspace.

Question 40: While on a cross-country flight, a glider pilot encounters a strong headwind when flying between thermals. To maximize the distance covered over the ground, the pilot should:

Fly faster than the best L/D speed. (Correct answer)
Fly at the normal best L/D speed.
Fly slower than the best L/D speed.
Fly at the minimum sink speed.

Correct answer: Fly faster than the best L/D speed.

When flying into a headwind, a pilot must increase their airspeed above the still-air best L/D speed to maximize ground distance. This increased speed reduces the time spent in the sinking air mass between thermals, covering more ground for the altitude lost. A common rule of thumb is to add about half the estimated headwind speed to the best L/D speed.

Question 41: While thermalling, a pilot notices the variometer reading increases significantly as they fly on a southerly heading and decreases on a northerly heading. To move the center of their turn towards the thermal's core, the pilot should:

Reverse the direction of the turn immediately.
Continue the turn with no change to recenter on the next circle.
Steepen the bank angle when heading south and shallow it when heading north.
Shallow the bank angle when heading south and steepen it when heading north. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Shallow the bank angle when heading south and steepen it when heading north.

To move the center of the turn towards the stronger lift, the pilot should spend more time on the side of the circle with weaker lift and less time on the side with stronger lift. By shallowing the bank in the strong lift (heading south), the turn radius increases, pushing the circle's center north. By steepening the bank in the weak lift (heading north), the turn radius decreases, pulling the circle's center towards the stronger lift.

Question 42: What is the term for the boundary between two different air masses?

Front. (Correct answer)
Jet stream.
Dew point.
Thermal inversion.

Correct answer: Front.

A front is the transition zone between two air masses with different temperature and humidity characteristics.

Question 43: What is the first action a pilot should take if a wingtip strikes the ground during landing?

Apply full opposite aileron.
Hold the wings level and gently correct with rudder. (Correct answer)
Immediately release the controls.
Apply full brakes.

Correct answer: Hold the wings level and gently correct with rudder.

Maintaining control and avoiding overcorrection is critical to prevent a ground loop or further damage.

Question 44: Which of the following airspace classes in Canada requires all aircraft, including gliders operating under VFR, to receive an ATC clearance before entry?

Class C (Correct answer)
Class D
Class E
Class G

Correct answer: Class C

Class C airspace requires that all VFR flights receive a clearance from Air Traffic Control before entering. ATC provides separation between IFR and VFR aircraft.

Question 45: What does the 'P' in the PAVE risk assessment checklist stand for?

Pilot in command (Correct answer)
Pressure altitude
Passenger load
Pre-flight check

Correct answer: Pilot in command

PAVE stands for Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, and External pressures, and is used to identify risk factors before flight.

Question 46: What is the recommended technique to overcome hyperventilation in flight?

Breathe faster to increase oxygen intake
Descend immediately to lower altitude
Breathe slowly and deeply, or speak aloud to regulate breathing (Correct answer)
Use supplemental oxygen from an emergency bottle

Correct answer: Breathe slowly and deeply, or speak aloud to regulate breathing

Hyperventilation is treated by slowing the breathing rate to restore the CO2/O2 balance, and speaking aloud naturally helps regulate breath rhythm.

Question 47: What is the primary reason high-performance gliders are designed with long, slender wings (a high aspect ratio)?

To increase the stall speed
To increase parasite drag
To improve maneuverability at low speeds
To reduce induced drag (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To reduce induced drag

A high aspect ratio (the ratio of wingspan to wing chord) reduces induced drag. Induced drag is a byproduct of lift and is most significant at lower airspeeds. By minimizing this type of drag, the glider achieves a higher lift-to-drag ratio, resulting in better glide performance.

Question 48: During a pre-flight inspection, you notice the yaw string is frayed and partially detached. What is the primary consequence of flying with a malfunctioning yaw string?

The variometer will show a constant climb.
Difficulty in maintaining coordinated flight. (Correct answer)
Incorrect altitude indications in windy conditions.
Inaccurate airspeed readings during turns.

Correct answer: Difficulty in maintaining coordinated flight.

The yaw string is a simple and crucial instrument that indicates whether the glider is in coordinated flight. It shows the direction of the relative wind. A malfunctioning yaw string makes it difficult for the pilot to sense and correct for adverse yaw, leading to inefficient and uncoordinated turns.

Question 49: You are on a cross-country flight in your glider and approaching a Class D control zone. What must you do before entering this airspace?

Ensure your transponder is set to the designated code for glider operations.
Nothing, as gliders are exempt from communication requirements in Class D airspace.
Establish two-way radio communication with the appropriate Air Traffic Control (ATC) unit. (Correct answer)
Obtain a special VFR clearance from ATC, regardless of the weather conditions.

Correct answer: Establish two-way radio communication with the appropriate Air Traffic Control (ATC) unit.

To operate under VFR in Class D airspace, pilots must establish two-way radio communication with the appropriate ATC unit prior to entry and maintain it while within the airspace.

Question 50: As per Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), which documents must the pilot of a privately registered glider carry on board during a cross-country flight?

Photo ID, pilot licence, and a copy of the glider's annual inspection report.
Certificate of Registration, Certificate of Airworthiness, and proof of insurance.
Pilot licence, medical certificate, and the aircraft's journey log book.
Pilot licence with medical declaration, Certificate of Registration, Certificate of Airworthiness, and the Pilot Operating Handbook. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pilot licence with medical declaration, Certificate of Registration, Certificate of Airworthiness, and the Pilot Operating Handbook.

CARs require the pilot to carry their licence and medical certificate (or declaration). For the aircraft, the required documents to be carried on board are the Certificate of Registration (CAR 202.26), Certificate of Airworthiness, and the Pilot Operating Handbook/Aircraft Flight Manual (CAR 605.04). The journey log is not required to be on board for a domestic flight that plans to return to the point of departure. Proof of insurance must be available but is not required to be carried in the aircraft.

Question 51: If the glider's release mechanism fails during an aerotow, what is the standard signal the glider pilot should give to the tow pilot?

Fly out to the left side of the tow plane and rock the wings. (Correct answer)
Move to the high tow position and yaw the tail back and forth.
Make a series of S-turns behind the tow plane.
Rock the glider's wings vigorously.

Correct answer: Fly out to the left side of the tow plane and rock the wings.

The standard visual signal for a glider release failure is for the glider to move to the left of the tow plane's wake and rock its wings. This alerts the tow pilot to the problem, who should then return to the airfield and release the tow rope from their end, allowing the glider to land safely.

Question 52: A glider pilot wishing to operate at a towered airport should contact ground control or clearance delivery:

Only when the tower frequency is congested
After landing and clearing the runway
Before taxiing, to receive taxi instructions and transponder codes (Correct answer)
Only if operating under IFR conditions

Correct answer: Before taxiing, to receive taxi instructions and transponder codes

Pilots should contact ground control before taxiing at a towered airport to receive taxi instructions, runway assignment, and any required transponder information.

Question 53: When utilizing ridge lift, what is the correct procedure for making turns while flying below the crest of the ridge?

Perform steep 360-degree turns to quickly gain altitude.
Turns can be made in either direction as long as a safe distance from the terrain is maintained.
All turns should be made away from the ridge. (Correct answer)
All turns should be made toward the ridge to stay in the strongest lift.

Correct answer: All turns should be made away from the ridge.

For safety, when flying below the crest of a ridge, all turns should be made away from the rising terrain. [23] Turning towards the ridge significantly reduces the margin for error, increases the risk of collision with the terrain, and can place the glider in the sink on the downwind side of the turn. Turning away from the ridge ensures the glider moves into an area with more clearance and provides a clear escape route if lift weakens or unexpected sink is encountered. [23]

Question 54: What is the most critical weather factor for thermal lift generation?

Humidity.
Cloud cover.
Wind speed.
Solar heating of the surface. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Solar heating of the surface.

Solar heating of the ground creates thermals, which are essential for glider pilots to gain altitude.

Question 55: Which wind condition is most favorable for ridge soaring?

Calm wind.
Wind blowing perpendicular to the ridge. (Correct answer)
Gusty, shifting winds.
Wind blowing parallel to the ridge.

Correct answer: Wind blowing perpendicular to the ridge.

Ridge soaring requires consistent wind perpendicular to a ridge or mountain slope to create lift.

Question 56: During preflight, you find a bird strike dent on the leading edge of the glider wing. What is the correct action?

Fly cautiously and monitor the area in flight
Cover it with speed tape and proceed with the flight
Ground the glider and have a certified mechanic inspect it before flight (Correct answer)
Report it to the FBO and continue the flight as planned

Correct answer: Ground the glider and have a certified mechanic inspect it before flight

Any structural damage to primary flight surfaces must be evaluated by a certified mechanic before the aircraft returns to service.

Question 57: An atmospheric sounding indicates a steep lapse rate, where the temperature decreases rapidly with altitude (more than 3°C per 1,000 feet). This condition is described as:

Atmospherically neutral.
Unstable, and favorable for thermal development. (Correct answer)
Stable, and poor for thermal development.
A strong temperature inversion.

Correct answer: Unstable, and favorable for thermal development.

An unstable atmosphere is characterized by a steep lapse rate, meaning the temperature drops quickly with an increase in altitude. [7, 16, 32] When a parcel of air near the surface is heated, it becomes warmer (and less dense) than the surrounding air and begins to rise. [35] In an unstable environment, this rising parcel will remain warmer than the surrounding air as it ascends, causing it to continue accelerating upward, thus forming strong thermals suitable for soaring. [7, 8, 32] A stable atmosphere or an inversion would suppress this vertical motion. [28, 35]

Question 58: A pilot in a glider without flaps or a retractable undercarriage needs to significantly increase the rate of descent without a corresponding increase in airspeed. Which control system should be used?

Spoilers/Air Brakes (Correct answer)
Ailerons
Elevator
Rudder

Correct answer: Spoilers/Air Brakes

Spoilers, also known as air brakes, are deployed from the wings to disrupt airflow, which simultaneously decreases lift and increases drag. This allows the pilot to increase the glider's descent angle for landing or to escape strong lift without building up excessive airspeed.

Question 59: When using a VFR Navigation Chart (VNC) for pilotage, which of the following features is MOST useful for a glider pilot to quickly and accurately confirm their position?

Isogonic lines showing magnetic variation.
Maximum Elevation Figures (MEFs) within a quadrangle.
Distinctive patterns formed by intersecting railways, highways, rivers, or the unique shape of a lake. (Correct answer)
The boundaries of remote Class G airspace.

Correct answer: Distinctive patterns formed by intersecting railways, highways, rivers, or the unique shape of a lake.

Pilotage is navigation by reference to visible landmarks. The most effective way to confirm a position is to identify a unique, unambiguous pattern on the ground and match it to the chart. Intersections of linear features like roads, rivers, and railways create such patterns, as do distinctively shaped lakes or towns. While MEFs and isogonic lines are crucial for planning, they are not used for in-flight visual position fixing.

Question 60: During a final approach, a pilot realizes they are too high but on the correct flight path. To lose altitude without a significant increase in airspeed, which maneuver is most appropriate?

A chandelle
A forward slip (Correct answer)
A steep spiral dive
A sideslip

Correct answer: A forward slip

A forward slip is a maneuver used specifically to increase the rate of descent without increasing airspeed. It is performed by cross-controlling the ailerons and rudder to present the side of the fuselage to the relative wind, creating significant drag. A sideslip is used to counteract drift in a crosswind landing.

FAA Glider Pilot Certificate (Knowledge Test)

The Glider Pilot Certificate knowledge test assesses an applicant's understanding of aeronautical knowledge required to safely operate a glider.

Questions

150 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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