GPC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield GPC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What does the 'P' in the PAVE risk assessment checklist stand for? → Pilot in command
2. If the glider's release mechanism fails during an aerotow, what is the standard signal the glider pilot should give to the tow pilot? → Fly out to the left side of the tow plane and rock the wings.
3. What is the primary aerodynamic effect a glider experiences when flying very close to the ground, such as during the final flare for landing? → A reduction in induced drag, causing the glider to 'float' further.
4. Which statement about ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) is correct? → ATIS provides continuous broadcasts of current airport information including weather
5. What pre-flight check is critical for ensuring the emergency parachute system is functional? → Ensuring the parachute is properly packed and secured.
6. Which condition is most likely to impair a glider pilot's judgment and reaction time during flight? → Fatigue combined with dehydration
7. What is the purpose of checking the pitot tube cover removal during a glider preflight? → To ensure airspeed will read correctly during flight
8. Which action best counters the hazardous attitude of impulsivity in glider flight? → Stop and think before acting — not the first action but the best action
9. What does a rising barometric pressure typically indicate? → Stable or improving weather.
10. What is the correct sequence for entering a thermal? → Shallow initial bank, then adjust as needed
11. A glider with a 1g stall speed of 40 knots enters a coordinated, 60-degree banked turn. What is the approximate new stall speed? → 56 knots
12. What does a steady red light gun signal mean to a glider in flight? → Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
13. How should a pilot handle a sudden loss of altitude in mountainous terrain? → Turn toward rising terrain to exploit ridge lift.
14. A glider pilot wishing to operate at a towered airport should contact ground control or clearance delivery: → Before taxiing, to receive taxi instructions and transponder codes
15. What is the dew point? → The temperature at which air becomes saturated.
16. When navigating using a sectional chart, what does a blue dashed line typically represent? → Class D airspace ceiling
17. Hypoxia in a glider pilot is most likely to occur when soaring at altitudes above: → 10,000 feet MSL
18. During preflight, you find a bird strike dent on the leading edge of the glider wing. What is the correct action? → Ground the glider and have a certified mechanic inspect it before flight
19. If a glider pilot loses radio communication while operating in Class C airspace, the proper action is to: → Attempt to reestablish contact and safely depart the airspace
20. What is the significance of the 'best glide speed' for a glider? → The airspeed that gives maximum distance for altitude lost
21. How should a pilot respond to an unexpected spin during flight? → Neutralize ailerons, apply full opposite rudder, then ease out of the dive.
22. What is the first step in the DECIDE model for aeronautical decision making? → Detect a change or problem
23. Which document is NOT required to be on board a glider during flight operations? → Pilot's logbook
24. Which preflight check is unique to gliders compared to powered aircraft? → Verifying the tow release mechanism operates correctly
25. What is the correct phraseology to indicate a transmission has ended and no reply is expected? → Out
26. What is the purpose of performing an 'energy check' on final approach? → To assess altitude and airspeed for landing
27. What is the recommended action if a glider’s canopy opens unexpectedly in flight? → Reduce speed and secure the canopy if possible.
28. What is the correct recovery technique for an incipient spin? → Neutralize ailerons, opposite rudder, then forward elevator
29. According to MacCready theory, if a pilot significantly increases their MacCready setting (e.g., from 2 knots to 6 knots), it implies they: → expect the next thermal to be much stronger and will fly faster between thermals.
30. Which cloud type is most likely to produce thunderstorms? → Cumulonimbus.