Google Cloud Certified - Professional Cloud Architect — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which GCP product provides a fully managed, distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) defense and WAF service?
- Cloud IAP
- Security Command Center
- Cloud Armor (Correct answer)
- VPC Firewall Rules
Correct answer: Cloud Armor
Google Cloud Armor provides DDoS protection and web application firewall (WAF) policies for GCP applications.
Question 2: An architect must choose a solution to migrate a large Oracle database to Google Cloud with minimal re-platforming effort. What is the most appropriate choice?
- Bare Metal Solution (Correct answer)
- Cloud Spanner
- BigQuery
- Cloud SQL for PostgreSQL with ora2pg
Correct answer: Bare Metal Solution
Bare Metal Solution provides dedicated hardware running Oracle Database in Google Cloud data centers, enabling lift-and-shift with no re-platforming.
Question 3: Which IAM role should be assigned to a CI/CD pipeline service account that needs to deploy Kubernetes workloads to GKE but should not have cluster admin access?
- roles/container.developer (Correct answer)
- roles/container.clusterAdmin
- roles/editor
- roles/container.admin
Correct answer: roles/container.developer
The roles/container.developer role provides permissions to deploy and manage Kubernetes resources within GKE clusters without granting cluster administration privileges.
Question 4: An architect is designing for 99.99% availability for a critical web application. Which architecture best achieves this SLO?
- Multi-zone deployment within one region using a regional load balancer
- Single-region deployment with a managed instance group and health checks
- Single-region deployment with Cloud Run and automatic scaling
- Multi-region active-active deployment with a global load balancer and regional failover (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Multi-region active-active deployment with a global load balancer and regional failover
A multi-region active-active deployment with global load balancing provides the highest availability by tolerating full regional failures.
Question 5: A developer accidentally granted the Editor role to an external user at the project level. What is the FASTEST way to remediate this while minimizing disruption?
- Disable all APIs in the project
- Change the project to a read-only state
- Remove the IAM binding for that user at the project level (Correct answer)
- Delete the project and recreate it
Correct answer: Remove the IAM binding for that user at the project level
Removing the specific IAM binding for the user at the project level immediately revokes their access without affecting any other users or project resources.
Question 6: Which App Engine environment automatically scales to zero instances when no traffic is received?
- Neither environment
- App Engine Standard (Correct answer)
- App Engine Flexible
- Both environments
Correct answer: App Engine Standard
App Engine Standard can scale to zero instances during periods of no traffic, reducing costs, while Flexible maintains at least one instance.
Question 7: A startup wants to allow a BigQuery analyst contractor access to run queries on production data for exactly two weeks. What is the BEST way to implement this with IAM?
- Use IAM Conditions to add a date/time expiry condition on the role binding (Correct answer)
- Use a shared service account with the analyst
- Grant them roles/bigquery.dataViewer and roles/bigquery.jobUser permanently, then revoke manually after two weeks
- Create a temporary project and move the data there
Correct answer: Use IAM Conditions to add a date/time expiry condition on the role binding
IAM Conditions support date/time expressions that automatically expire role bindings, making them ideal for temporary access without requiring manual cleanup.
Question 8: You need to analyze 10 years of clickstream logs (petabytes) with ad-hoc SQL queries. Cost efficiency is the top priority. What storage and query approach should you use?
- Store in Cloud Storage as Parquet, query with BigQuery external tables (Correct answer)
- Store in Cloud SQL and query directly
- Store in Bigtable and use the HBase API
- Store in Firestore and use collection group queries
Correct answer: Store in Cloud Storage as Parquet, query with BigQuery external tables
BigQuery external tables on Cloud Storage Parquet files avoid data ingestion costs and use columnar compression, making ad-hoc queries highly cost-efficient for petabyte-scale cold data.
Question 9: Which Cloud Spanner configuration provides the highest level of availability and global disaster recovery?
- Regional instance
- Multi-region instance (Correct answer)
- Single-zone instance
- Replicated instance
Correct answer: Multi-region instance
Cloud Spanner multi-region instances replicate data synchronously across multiple regions, providing 99.999% availability and regional DR.
Question 10: A company needs to export all GCP logs to a centralized BigQuery dataset for long-term analysis. What is the best approach?
- Download logs manually via the console
- Use Cloud Dataflow to read logs from Cloud Logging
- Configure a Log Sink to route logs to BigQuery (Correct answer)
- Use Cloud Pub/Sub to push logs to BigQuery
Correct answer: Configure a Log Sink to route logs to BigQuery
Log Sinks in Cloud Logging automatically route log entries to destinations like BigQuery, Cloud Storage, or Pub/Sub for archival and analysis.
Question 11: What is the recommended practice for managing service account keys in Google Cloud?
- Encrypt keys with Cloud KMS and embed them in application code
- Rotate keys every 90 days and store them in Cloud Storage
- Avoid downloading keys and use Workload Identity Federation or attached service accounts instead (Correct answer)
- Store keys in Secret Manager and reference them at runtime
Correct answer: Avoid downloading keys and use Workload Identity Federation or attached service accounts instead
Google recommends avoiding user-managed service account keys entirely by using Workload Identity Federation or attaching service accounts to resources.
Question 12: What Cloud Storage class is most cost-effective for data accessed less than once per year?
- Archive (Correct answer)
- Standard
- Coldline
- Nearline
Correct answer: Archive
Archive storage has the lowest storage cost but highest retrieval cost, making it ideal for data accessed less than once a year.
Question 13: Which GKE feature helps ensure a minimum number of pods remain available during voluntary disruptions like node upgrades?
- LimitRange
- Pod Disruption Budget (PDB) (Correct answer)
- Horizontal Pod Autoscaler
- Resource Quotas
Correct answer: Pod Disruption Budget (PDB)
Pod Disruption Budgets define the minimum number of pods that must remain available during voluntary disruptions, preventing outages during maintenance.
Question 14: A team wants to debug a production Cloud Run service without redeploying or adding log statements. Which GCP tool allows setting breakpoints and inspecting state?
- Cloud Profiler
- Cloud Trace
- Error Reporting
- Cloud Debugger (Snapshot Debugger) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cloud Debugger (Snapshot Debugger)
Cloud Debugger (now Snapshot Debugger) allows inspecting application state at specific code locations in running apps without stopping or redeploying.
Question 15: What is the purpose of Cloud SQL Read Replicas?
- Offload read traffic and improve read performance (Correct answer)
- Enable real-time sync to BigQuery
- Replace the primary for writes automatically
- Provide multi-region writes
Correct answer: Offload read traffic and improve read performance
Cloud SQL Read Replicas serve read queries, reducing load on the primary instance and improving overall read throughput.
Question 16: Which IAM binding type allows you to set conditions on when a role applies to a member, such as restricting access to specific hours or IP ranges?
- Policy bindings
- Conditional bindings (Correct answer)
- Basic bindings
- Service account bindings
Correct answer: Conditional bindings
Conditional bindings (IAM Conditions) allow you to define attribute-based access control rules that restrict when a role applies based on request attributes like time, IP, or resource tags.
Question 17: Which GCP feature allows you to create scheduled, automated snapshots of Persistent Disks for backup?
- Managed Instance Group autohealing
- Snapshot Schedules (Correct answer)
- Cloud Backup and DR service
- Disk cloning
Correct answer: Snapshot Schedules
Snapshot Schedules in Compute Engine automate the creation and retention of Persistent Disk snapshots on a defined schedule.
Question 18: A company needs to store petabytes of unstructured data with infrequent access at the lowest cost. Which Cloud Storage class should they choose?
- Nearline
- Standard
- Coldline
- Archive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Archive
Archive storage offers the lowest cost per GB for data accessed less than once a year, making it ideal for long-term cold storage.
Question 19: Which AlloyDB feature makes it significantly faster than standard Cloud SQL PostgreSQL for analytical queries?
- Multi-region synchronous writes
- Automatic sharding
- Built-in Redis cache
- Columnar engine for HTAP workloads (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Columnar engine for HTAP workloads
AlloyDB's columnar engine accelerates analytical queries by storing data in a column-oriented format in memory alongside the row store.
Question 20: Which disaster recovery pattern offers the lowest RTO but highest cost in GCP?
- Hot Standby (Multi-Site Active-Active) (Correct answer)
- Warm Standby
- Pilot Light
- Backup and Restore
Correct answer: Hot Standby (Multi-Site Active-Active)
Hot Standby / Multi-Site Active-Active keeps identical production environments running in all regions simultaneously, enabling near-zero RTO at maximum cost.
Question 21: What does the principle of least privilege mean in the context of IAM?
- Users and services should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their tasks (Correct answer)
- Permissions should be granted at the project level to simplify management
- Only administrators can modify IAM policies
- All users should have viewer access to all resources by default
Correct answer: Users and services should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their tasks
Least privilege means granting only the permissions required to perform a specific job function, reducing the blast radius in case of a compromised account.
Question 22: A startup wants to run a containerized web app that scales to zero when unused to minimize costs. Which compute option is most appropriate?
- GKE Autopilot with cluster autoscaler
- Cloud Run (fully managed) with minimum instances set to 0 (Correct answer)
- App Engine Standard with manual scaling
- Compute Engine managed instance group with autoscaling
Correct answer: Cloud Run (fully managed) with minimum instances set to 0
Cloud Run (fully managed) with min-instances=0 scales down completely when idle, incurring no compute cost between requests.
Question 23: A GCP architect needs to ensure that all project resources created in the future automatically inherit specific labels for cost attribution. Which tool should they use?
- Resource Manager labels
- Organization Policy with label constraints (Correct answer)
- Cloud Monitoring alert policies
- Billing export to BigQuery
Correct answer: Organization Policy with label constraints
Organization Policy constraints can enforce mandatory label requirements on resources, ensuring consistent tagging for cost attribution.
Question 24: Which Cloud Monitoring feature allows you to monitor the availability and latency of external or internal URLs?
- Custom dashboards
- Log-Based Metrics
- Alerting policies
- Uptime checks (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Uptime checks
Uptime checks in Cloud Monitoring periodically test the availability and response time of URLs or TCP ports from multiple global locations.
Question 25: What consistency model does Firestore use for its document reads?
- Eventual consistency only
- Causal consistency
- Read-your-writes consistency only
- Strong consistency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Strong consistency
Firestore provides strong consistency for all document reads, ensuring you always read the latest committed data.
Question 26: You are creating an intricate architecture that links numerous services to a main database. How should the credentials be safely stored?
- Store the keys in the source code
- Store them in a configuration file
- Leverage a secret management system (Correct answer)
- Memorize them
Correct answer: Leverage a secret management system
Explanation: <br> If you need to manage and save your secret keys, use a secrets manager. Hackers search GitHub for inexperienced users who don't secure their secrets, and all too frequently, developers take quick cuts and store their secrets in code, forgetting to remove them when they move to production. One of the main assault vectors in the present day is this one!
Question 27: An e-commerce platform needs to process payment events in strict order per customer ID, with exactly-once semantics. Which Pub/Sub feature enables this?
- Standard Pub/Sub with a Dataflow exactly-once pipeline
- Pub/Sub with message ordering enabled and an ordering key set to customer ID (Correct answer)
- Cloud Tasks with task deduplication IDs
- Pub/Sub Lite with zonal partitions
Correct answer: Pub/Sub with message ordering enabled and an ordering key set to customer ID
Pub/Sub ordering keys guarantee that messages with the same key are delivered in order to a single subscriber, enabling per-customer ordered processing.
Question 28: Which Google Cloud feature allows you to create a private connection between your VPC and Google APIs without traffic traversing the public internet?
- VPC Peering
- Private Google Access (Correct answer)
- Cloud VPN
- Cloud Interconnect
Correct answer: Private Google Access
Private Google Access allows VM instances without external IP addresses to reach Google APIs and services using internal IP addresses.
Question 29: Which GCP service automatically groups and analyzes application error events and notifies developers of new errors?
- Cloud Trace
- Cloud Logging
- Cloud Debugger
- Error Reporting (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Error Reporting
Error Reporting automatically aggregates and deduplicates exceptions from applications, providing a unified view and notifications for new errors.
Question 30: A team wants to enforce that all Compute Engine VMs in their organization use only approved OS images. What is the correct control?
- Require manual approval for every VM creation request
- Use an Organization Policy constraint to restrict allowed images (Correct answer)
- Add a firewall rule blocking unapproved image traffic
- Audit images weekly with a Cloud Function script
Correct answer: Use an Organization Policy constraint to restrict allowed images
The constraints/compute.trustedImageProjects organization policy prevents VM creation from images outside the approved list.
Question 31: A company runs a legacy application on physical servers and wants to migrate to GCP with minimal refactoring. Which compute option is most appropriate?
- Compute Engine VMs (Correct answer)
- Cloud Run
- App Engine Standard
- Google Kubernetes Engine
Correct answer: Compute Engine VMs
Compute Engine provides full control over VM configuration, making it the best choice for lift-and-shift migrations of legacy applications.
Question 32: A company wants to ensure its GCE VMs are never preempted during a critical batch window. Which VM type should they use?
- Committed Use VMs
- Standard on-demand VMs (Correct answer)
- Preemptible VMs
- Spot VMs
Correct answer: Standard on-demand VMs
Standard on-demand VMs are not subject to preemption and provide guaranteed availability, unlike Spot or Preemptible VMs.
Question 33: What is a key characteristic of a Warm Standby disaster recovery strategy?
- A scaled-down version of the environment runs continuously and can scale up quickly (Correct answer)
- The environment is created only after a disaster is declared
- Backups are replicated but no compute runs in the DR region
- The standby environment is identical to production and always running at full capacity
Correct answer: A scaled-down version of the environment runs continuously and can scale up quickly
Warm Standby keeps a reduced-capacity version of the environment running, allowing faster recovery than a cold standby but at lower cost than hot standby.
Question 34: Which resource hierarchy level is the LOWEST at which an IAM policy can be set in Google Cloud?
- Project
- Individual resource (Correct answer)
- Folder
- Organization
Correct answer: Individual resource
IAM policies can be set at the individual resource level (e.g., a specific Cloud Storage bucket or BigQuery dataset), which is the most granular level in the resource hierarchy.
Question 35: A team wants to run stateless containerized workloads on GCP without managing any infrastructure or Kubernetes clusters. Which service is best?
- GKE Standard
- GKE Autopilot
- Cloud Run (Correct answer)
- GCE Managed Instance Groups
Correct answer: Cloud Run
Cloud Run is a fully managed serverless platform for stateless containers that abstracts all infrastructure management.
Question 36: Which Compute Engine feature allows you to automatically add or remove VM instances based on load?
- Cloud Scheduler
- Unmanaged Instance Groups
- Persistent Disk snapshots
- Managed Instance Groups with Autoscaling (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Managed Instance Groups with Autoscaling
Managed Instance Groups (MIGs) with autoscaling automatically adjust the number of VM instances based on CPU utilization, load balancing metrics, or custom signals.
Question 37: Which Cloud SQL feature provides automatic failover to a standby replica in case of a primary instance failure?
- Point-in-time recovery
- Cloud SQL Backups
- High Availability (HA) with failover replica (Correct answer)
- Cross-region Read Replica
Correct answer: High Availability (HA) with failover replica
Cloud SQL High Availability creates a synchronous standby replica in the same region that automatically takes over if the primary fails.
Question 38: A company uses multiple Google Cloud projects and wants centralized billing alerts when spend across all projects exceeds a threshold. What should they configure?
- Cloud Monitoring uptime checks with cost thresholds
- A budget alert on each individual project
- Cloud Functions that query billing export data hourly
- A budget alert at the billing account level covering all linked projects (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A budget alert at the billing account level covering all linked projects
A billing account-level budget aggregates spend across all linked projects and triggers Pub/Sub or email alerts when thresholds are crossed.
Question 39: Which layer does a Google Cloud External HTTP(S) Load Balancer operate at?
- Layer 3 (Network)
- Layer 4 (Transport)
- Layer 2 (Data Link)
- Layer 7 (Application) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Layer 7 (Application)
External HTTP(S) Load Balancer is a Layer 7 load balancer that routes traffic based on URL maps, headers, and other HTTP attributes.
Question 40: Your business wants to test out the cloud safely. They wish to test the analytics features offered by the cloud and archive about 100 TB of their log data there, as well as keeping that data as a long-term backup for disaster recovery. Which two actions ought they to take?
- Insert logs into Cloud Bigtable
- Load logs into Cloud SQL
- Import logs into Stackdriver
- Load logs into BigQuery (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Load logs into BigQuery
Explanation: <br> BigQuery is a fully managed cloud data warehouse that satisfies the needs of analytics.
Question 41: What does the term 'error budget' mean in the context of SRE practices on GCP?
- The allowable amount of downtime or failures before an SLO is breached (Correct answer)
- The budget allocated for fixing bugs in production
- The number of 5xx errors permitted per hour
- The cost of running reliability tools in Cloud Monitoring
Correct answer: The allowable amount of downtime or failures before an SLO is breached
The error budget is the amount of unreliability (downtime, errors) that is acceptable within a given period before breaching the SLO.
Question 42: A financial application requires full ACID compliance and the ability to scale to millions of transactions per second globally. Which database is the best fit?
- Cloud SQL
- BigQuery
- Firestore
- Cloud Spanner (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cloud Spanner
Cloud Spanner provides global distribution with full ACID transactions and can handle millions of TPS, making it ideal for mission-critical financial apps.
Question 43: Which GCP service is optimized for petabyte-scale, low-latency reads/writes for time-series or wide-column workloads like IoT data?
- BigQuery
- Cloud Spanner
- Cloud Bigtable (Correct answer)
- Cloud SQL
Correct answer: Cloud Bigtable
Cloud Bigtable is a managed wide-column NoSQL database designed for petabyte-scale time-series and analytical workloads with low latency.
Question 44: A company wants to run a batch data processing job on GCP that needs to start quickly and complete within a few hours at lowest cost. Which VM option is most appropriate?
- Sole-tenant nodes
- Committed Use Discounts
- Standard VMs with on-demand pricing
- Preemptible VMs (Spot VMs) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Preemptible VMs (Spot VMs)
Preemptible (Spot) VMs offer significant discounts (up to 91%) for short-lived workloads that can tolerate interruption, ideal for batch processing.
Question 45: Which GCP monitoring concept defines a target level of service that is measured against an error budget?
- KPI (Key Performance Indicator)
- OKR (Objective and Key Result)
- SLA (Service Level Agreement)
- SLO (Service Level Objective) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: SLO (Service Level Objective)
An SLO defines the target reliability level (e.g., 99.9% availability) and is used to calculate the error budget for the service.
Question 46: Which GCP service helps identify cost savings opportunities by analyzing Compute Engine usage and recommending committed use discounts or rightsizing?
- Cloud Monitoring
- Active Assist Recommender (Correct answer)
- Billing Alerts
- Cost Management Dashboard
Correct answer: Active Assist Recommender
Active Assist Recommender analyzes resource usage patterns and provides actionable recommendations for cost savings, security, and performance.
Question 47: Which IAM approach best follows the principle of least privilege for a Cloud Run service that only needs to read from one Cloud Storage bucket?
- Grant the service account roles/storage.admin on the project
- Create a custom role with storage.objects.get and storage.objects.list on that specific bucket (Correct answer)
- Use the default Compute Engine service account with Editor role
- Grant roles/storage.objectViewer at the project level
Correct answer: Create a custom role with storage.objects.get and storage.objects.list on that specific bucket
A custom role scoped to only the needed permissions on the specific bucket minimizes the blast radius of any credential compromise.
Question 48: A company wants to set up automated alerts when their monthly GCP spend is projected to exceed their budget. Which feature should they configure?
- Cost table reports
- Cloud Monitoring billing metric alerts
- Cloud Billing budget alerts (Correct answer)
- BigQuery billing export analysis
Correct answer: Cloud Billing budget alerts
Cloud Billing budget alerts trigger email or Pub/Sub notifications when actual or forecasted spend crosses configurable thresholds.
Question 49: Which GKE feature automatically adjusts pod CPU and memory requests based on historical usage?
- Node Auto-Provisioner
- Cluster Autoscaler
- Vertical Pod Autoscaler (Correct answer)
- Horizontal Pod Autoscaler
Correct answer: Vertical Pod Autoscaler
Vertical Pod Autoscaler (VPA) recommends and optionally applies CPU and memory request adjustments based on actual pod usage history.
Question 50: What is the purpose of a Cloud Monitoring workspace?
- Define IAM roles for Logging access
- Manage billing for monitored resources
- Store audit log archives
- Provide a unified monitoring view across multiple GCP projects (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Provide a unified monitoring view across multiple GCP projects
A Cloud Monitoring workspace aggregates metrics and dashboards from multiple GCP projects into a single monitoring interface.
Question 51: When using Cloud Bigtable, what is the best practice for row key design to avoid hotspotting?
- Use high-cardinality, evenly distributed keys such as salted or reversed strings (Correct answer)
- Use the user's email address directly
- Use timestamps as the leading component
- Use sequential integer IDs as row keys
Correct answer: Use high-cardinality, evenly distributed keys such as salted or reversed strings
Hotspotting occurs when many reads/writes hit the same tablet; using salted or reversed keys distributes load evenly across nodes.
Question 52: A team needs to share read access to a sensitive dataset in BigQuery with external auditors without giving them Google Cloud project access. What is the correct approach?
- Add auditor email addresses as project Viewer on the Google Cloud project
- Create a service account key and share it with the auditors
- Export data to a public Cloud Storage bucket for auditors to download
- Use BigQuery authorized views to expose only specific columns/rows, granting access to the view (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Use BigQuery authorized views to expose only specific columns/rows, granting access to the view
Authorized views allow you to share a filtered, column-restricted subset of data without granting direct table access or any project-level IAM role.
Question 53: Your organization needs a landing zone for multiple business units on Google Cloud. Which resource hierarchy is most aligned with Google's recommended best practices?
- One project per business unit with folders grouping environments
- One organization per business unit
- Organization → Projects (flat, labeled by business unit and environment)
- Organization → Folders (by business unit) → Folders (by environment) → Projects (by workload) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Organization → Folders (by business unit) → Folders (by environment) → Projects (by workload)
Google recommends an Organization → BU folders → Environment folders → Workload projects hierarchy, which allows IAM and policy inheritance at the right granularity.
Question 54: What is the benefit of using regional Persistent Disks in Google Compute Engine?
- Synchronous replication across two zones for higher durability and availability (Correct answer)
- Automatic snapshots included
- Lower cost than zonal disks
- Faster I/O performance than zonal disks
Correct answer: Synchronous replication across two zones for higher durability and availability
Regional Persistent Disks replicate data synchronously across two zones in a region, providing resilience against single-zone failures.
Question 55: What does the Cloud Profiler service do in Google Cloud?
- Aggregates application errors
- Continuously collects CPU and memory usage data from running applications (Correct answer)
- Monitors uptime of external endpoints
- Traces requests across microservices
Correct answer: Continuously collects CPU and memory usage data from running applications
Cloud Profiler collects CPU and memory profiling data from production applications with minimal performance impact, helping identify bottlenecks.
Question 56: Which Google Cloud network tier should a latency-sensitive, globally distributed application use to route traffic across Google's backbone?
- Edge Tier
- Premium Tier (Correct answer)
- Basic Tier
- Standard Tier
Correct answer: Premium Tier
Premium Tier routes traffic over Google's global, high-quality network from the point of ingress, minimizing latency for globally distributed users.
Question 57: Which tool can be used to analyze and understand what permissions an IAM principal has across a GCP organization?
- Policy Analyzer (IAM Policy Troubleshooter) (Correct answer)
- Cloud Profiler
- Asset Inventory only
- Cloud Trace
Correct answer: Policy Analyzer (IAM Policy Troubleshooter)
Policy Analyzer and IAM Policy Troubleshooter allow you to query and understand effective permissions for a principal across the resource hierarchy.
Question 58: An application requires a 99.99% availability SLA and must serve users across multiple GCP regions. Which load balancing configuration achieves this?
- Regional Internal TCP/UDP Load Balancer
- Regional External HTTP(S) Load Balancer
- Global External HTTP(S) Load Balancer with multi-region backends (Correct answer)
- Classic external TCP Load Balancer
Correct answer: Global External HTTP(S) Load Balancer with multi-region backends
A Global External HTTP(S) Load Balancer with multi-region backend services provides the highest availability by routing to the nearest healthy region.
Question 59: Your application needs to serve users in Asia, Europe, and North America with sub-100ms latency for static assets. What is the optimal architecture?
- Use multi-region Cloud Storage bucket without a CDN
- Deploy Compute Engine VMs in each region and use DNS load balancing
- Deploy separate App Engine applications in each region
- Use Cloud CDN backed by a global external HTTP(S) load balancer with Cloud Storage origin (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Use Cloud CDN backed by a global external HTTP(S) load balancer with Cloud Storage origin
Cloud CDN caches content at Google's global edge PoPs, and the global load balancer routes users to the nearest cache, minimizing latency for static assets worldwide.
Question 60: Which Google Cloud service provides a fully managed, serverless execution environment for building and connecting cloud services?
- Cloud Run
- Cloud Functions (Correct answer)
- App Engine
- Cloud Build
Correct answer: Cloud Functions
Cloud Functions is Google Cloud's fully managed serverless execution environment designed for event-driven, single-purpose functions.
Google Cloud Certified - Professional Cloud Architect
The Professional Cloud Architect certification validates the ability to design, develop, and manage robust, secure, scalable, and cost-effective cloud solutions on Google Cloud. It tests knowledge of cloud architecture, infrastructure management, security, compliance, and the Google Cloud Well-Architected Framework.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds