General Surgery Board Review Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield General Surgery Board Review facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Chylous ascites after retroperitoneal lymph node dissection is best managed initially with which approach? → Low-fat diet with medium-chain triglycerides or total parenteral nutrition
2. McBurney's point, used to locate the appendix, is located at which anatomical position? → Two-thirds the distance from the right ASIS to the umbilicus
3. Which scoring system most commonly assesses severity of acute pancreatitis within the first 48 hours of admission? → Ranson's criteria
4. What is the standard surgical treatment for a stable patient with a perforated duodenal ulcer presenting within 6 hours of onset? → Omental patch repair (Graham patch)
5. How should an General Surgery Board Review professional respond to a compliance violation? → Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions
6. Which ASA physical status classification is assigned to a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life? → ASA IV
7. Which of the following is the best sign that an IVC filter has to be placed? → in a patient with recent pulmonary emboli despite anticoagulation with Coumadin
8. The Kocher maneuver (mobilization) provides surgical access to which structure? → Duodenum and head of pancreas
9. How does continuous improvement apply to General Surgery Board Review quality management? → It involves ongoing incremental enhancements to processes based on data and feedback
10. The Pfannenstiel incision primarily provides access to which anatomical region? → Pelvis and lower abdomen
11. What is the benefit of standardized digital reporting in General Surgery Board Review practice? → It ensures consistency, enables comparison, and facilitates regulatory compliance
12. What is the role of professional journals in General Surgery Board Review practice? → They disseminate current research, best practices, and professional developments
13. Why is evidence-based practice important in General Surgery Board Review? → It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes
14. The Child-Pugh score for estimating hepatic reserve in liver disease includes which five parameters? → Total bilirubin, serum albumin, INR, degree of encephalopathy, and severity of ascites
15. Which operation is the primary surgical treatment for achalasia to relieve lower esophageal sphincter obstruction? → Heller myotomy
16. Which MEN syndrome includes medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, AND mucosal/intestinal ganglioneuromas with marfanoid habitus? → MEN type 2B
17. Anastomotic leak after colorectal surgery most commonly presents on which postoperative day? → POD 5–7
18. What is reflective practice in General Surgery Board Review professional development? → Systematically examining experiences to gain insight and improve future practice
19. How does a General Surgery Board Review professional communicate risks to stakeholders? → By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions
20. Surgical resection of a hilar cholangiocarcinoma (Klatskin tumor) typically requires which operative approach? → Major hepatectomy with extrahepatic bile duct excision and biliary reconstruction
21. Which of the following can happen if carbon dioxide (CO2) is quickly inhaled into the abdomen? → Bradycardia
22. Which of the following statements about fibrinolysis is untrue? → plasmin acts only on cross-linked fibrin polymers
23. What is the primary value of case study analysis in General Surgery Board Review training? → Developing critical thinking by applying theory to realistic professional scenarios
24. Which vessel is the primary blood supply to the parathyroid glands and must be preserved during thyroid surgery? → Inferior thyroid artery
25. A patient develops perioral tingling and carpopedal spasm 24 hours after total thyroidectomy. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Hypocalcemia from hypoparathyroidism
26. Intraoperative hypotension following pneumoperitoneum establishment in laparoscopic surgery is most commonly caused by: → Decreased venous return from elevated intra-abdominal pressure
27. A T3N1M0 colon cancer corresponds to which AJCC stage? → Stage IIIB
28. Antibiotic prophylaxis for colorectal surgery should target which organisms? → Both gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes
29. Charcot's triad of fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain is pathognomonic for which condition? → Ascending cholangitis
30. How do General Surgery Board Review professionals evaluate research quality? → By assessing methodology, sample size, peer review status, and relevance to practice