General Surgery Board Review Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield General Surgery Board Review facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Chylous ascites after retroperitoneal lymph node dissection is best managed initially with which approach? → Low-fat diet with medium-chain triglycerides or total parenteral nutrition
2. During a Whipple procedure, which of the following anastomoses is NOT performed? → Choledochoduodenostomy
3. McBurney's point, used to locate the appendix, is located at which anatomical position? → Two-thirds the distance from the right ASIS to the umbilicus
4. When obtaining informed consent from a non-English-speaking patient for an elective cholecystectomy, the correct approach is to: → Use a qualified medical interpreter service
5. Which artery is most commonly injured during laparoscopic cholecystectomy leading to a major vascular complication? → Right hepatic artery
6. A patient with a suspected sigmoid volvulus is hemodynamically stable without signs of peritonitis. What is the first-line treatment? → Flexible sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube decompression
7. Which scoring system most commonly assesses severity of acute pancreatitis within the first 48 hours of admission? → Ranson's criteria
8. What is the standard surgical treatment for a stable patient with a perforated duodenal ulcer presenting within 6 hours of onset? → Omental patch repair (Graham patch)
9. A 55-year-old male presents with painless jaundice, weight loss, and a palpable gallbladder. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? → Pancreatic head carcinoma
10. How should an General Surgery Board Review professional respond to a compliance violation? → Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions
11. Which ASA physical status classification is assigned to a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life? → ASA IV
12. Which of the following is the best sign that an IVC filter has to be placed? → in a patient with recent pulmonary emboli despite anticoagulation with Coumadin
13. The Kocher maneuver (mobilization) provides surgical access to which structure? → Duodenum and head of pancreas
14. How does continuous improvement apply to General Surgery Board Review quality management? → It involves ongoing incremental enhancements to processes based on data and feedback
15. The Pfannenstiel incision primarily provides access to which anatomical region? → Pelvis and lower abdomen
16. What is the benefit of standardized digital reporting in General Surgery Board Review practice? → It ensures consistency, enables comparison, and facilitates regulatory compliance
17. What is the role of professional journals in General Surgery Board Review practice? → They disseminate current research, best practices, and professional developments
18. A patient undergoes right hemicolectomy. On post-operative day 5, output from the drain is 500 mL of bilious fluid. What is the most likely source? → Anastomotic leak
19. When breaking bad news to a patient about a new cancer diagnosis, which communication framework is most evidence-based for surgical oncology settings? → SPIKES (Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotions, Summary)
20. Why is evidence-based practice important in General Surgery Board Review? → It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes
21. The Child-Pugh score for estimating hepatic reserve in liver disease includes which five parameters? → Total bilirubin, serum albumin, INR, degree of encephalopathy, and severity of ascites
22. Which operation is the primary surgical treatment for achalasia to relieve lower esophageal sphincter obstruction? → Heller myotomy
23. A nurse reports to the surgical resident that a patient is expressing suicidal ideation postoperatively. The resident's first action should be to: → Perform an immediate bedside assessment and activate the psychiatric consult pathway
24. A patient declines a blood transfusion for religious reasons despite a hemoglobin of 6.5 g/dL following major abdominal surgery. The surgeon should: → Respect the refusal, document it, and optimize non-transfusion hemostatic measures
25. Anastomotic leak after colorectal surgery most commonly presents on which postoperative day? → POD 5–7
26. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for a stable patient with a Type II SLAP (superior labrum anterior-to-posterior) tear? → Physical therapy for 3-6 months
27. What is reflective practice in General Surgery Board Review professional development? → Systematically examining experiences to gain insight and improve future practice
28. How does a General Surgery Board Review professional communicate risks to stakeholders? → By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions
29. Surgical resection of a hilar cholangiocarcinoma (Klatskin tumor) typically requires which operative approach? → Major hepatectomy with extrahepatic bile duct excision and biliary reconstruction
30. Which of the following can happen if carbon dioxide (CO2) is quickly inhaled into the abdomen? → Bradycardia