FREE NBEO Continued Professional Development in Optometry Questions and Answers
Which 2 of the following are most appropriate in the initial management of an adult male who is experiencing an acute anaphylactic reaction?
Please select 2 correct answers
Explanation:
In the initial management of an acute anaphylactic reaction, it is crucial to administer systemic epinephrine, as it is the first-line treatment to counteract the severe allergic response. Additionally, calling 911 ensures that the patient receives prompt medical attention and further necessary treatment.
Patient findings: A 29-year-old Hispanic female complains of severe itching and redness in her right eye since yesterday when she was weeding her garden. Your examination reveals 3+ eyelid and conjunctival chemosis and 1+ injection OD.
Which of the following drugs would be least effective in treating her condition?
Explanation:
Cromolyn 4% is the least effective in treating her condition. Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer used to prevent allergic reactions, but it is typically less effective for treating acute symptoms such as severe itching and redness compared to antihistamines like Chlorpheniramine or Olopatadine, which directly target histamine release and alleviate symptoms more quickly.
Which of the following best describes an optometrist's ethical obligation when an examination reveals a confidential finding, such as acuity below the minimum requirements necessary to operate a motor vehicle?
Explanation:
Optometrists have an ethical obligation to prioritize the well-being of their patients. This includes using confidential information obtained during examinations solely for the benefit of the patient's health and safety. Therefore, the optometrist should use the information to provide appropriate recommendations and interventions to ensure the patient's visual health and safety, which may include discussing concerns about driving if necessary.
You place a 21-year-old female on oral tetracycline 250 mg po qid for 30 days. This long-term treatment may cause all of the following side effects, except:
Explanation:
Long-term treatment with tetracycline can cause side effects such as skin photosensitivity, papilledema, and gastrointestinal distress. However, ototoxicity (damage to the ear leading to hearing loss) is not typically associated with tetracycline.
Patient findings: A 29-year-old Hispanic female complains of severe itching and redness in her right eye since yesterday when she was weeding her garden. Your examination reveals 3+ eyelid and conjunctival chemosis and 1+ injection OD.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient's symptoms of severe itching, redness, and conjunctival chemosis, especially following exposure to an outdoor environment (weeding the garden), are most consistent with allergic conjunctivitis. This condition is commonly triggered by environmental allergens such as pollen.
A 7-year-old patient has acute streptococcal erysipelas involving the eyelids. Which of the following is the best oral medication for this patient?
Explanation:
Penicillin V is the best oral medication for treating acute streptococcal infections, such as erysipelas. It is effective against Streptococcus bacteria, which is the cause of the condition. Tetracycline and doxycycline are not typically used in children due to potential side effects, and cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant, not an antibiotic.
A 78-year-old white female tells you that the vision in her right eye gradually has been worsening for the past 2 months. You find that her best corrected visual acuities are 20/60 OD and 20/20 OS. Ophthalmoscopy and macular OCT reveal hemorrhage due to a subfoveal choroidal neovascular membrane OD. Of the following, which is the best management for this patient's right eye?
Explanation:
Intravitreal bevacizumab is an anti-VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) treatment effective for managing choroidal neovascular membranes, which are associated with conditions like age-related macular degeneration. This treatment helps reduce hemorrhage and neovascularization, thus improving or stabilizing vision.
Patient findings: A 27-year-old female presents after an airbag injury to her right eye the previous day. Examination reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect and light-perception vision OD. The patient's extraocular muscle motility is normal. The IOP is 12 mmHg OD. Other than mild right eyelid chemosis and hematoma, there is no external evidence of trauma. The fundus examination is unremarkable. All findings are normal OS.
Which 2 of the following are least likely to be found on CT scan of the head and orbit?
Please select 2 correct answers
Explanation:
Given the specific eye injury and symptoms, a cerebrospinal fluid leak and a hyperdense area in the occipital lobe are less directly related to the described presentation of traumatic optic neuropathy. The more likely findings would involve structures closer to the orbit and optic nerve.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to contribute to the visual fatigue and asthenopia experienced by users of computer displays?
Explanation:
While ultraviolet (UV) radiation can have detrimental effects on the eyes, it is not typically emitted by computer displays. Screen reflections, window glare, and uncompensated astigmatism are more common factors contributing to visual fatigue and asthenopia when using computer displays. UV radiation is more commonly associated with outdoor exposure or exposure to sources such as sunlight and certain artificial light sources, rather than computer screens.
A patient has a mucopurulent discharge from a lesion of the right lower eyelid. Which of the following ophthalmic ointments would be most effective to use if a Gram stain of the discharge reveals predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes and Gram-negative organisms?
Explanation:
Ciprofloxacin is an effective antibiotic against Gram-negative organisms. Given that the Gram stain reveals predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes and Gram-negative organisms, ciprofloxacin would be the most appropriate choice for treating the infection.
Patient findings: A 27-year-old female presents after an airbag injury to her right eye the previous day. Examination reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect and light-perception vision OD. The patient's extraocular muscle motility is normal. The IOP is 12 mmHg OD. Other than mild right eyelid chemosis and hematoma, there is no external evidence of trauma. The fundus examination is unremarkable. All findings are normal OS.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The presence of a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) and light-perception vision in the affected eye, coupled with normal intraocular pressure and extraocular muscle motility, strongly suggests traumatic optic neuropathy. This condition can result from blunt trauma, such as an airbag injury, leading to damage to the optic nerve without visible fundus abnormalities.