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Internal Medicine Exam FREE Internal Medicine Cardiovascular Disease Questions and Answers

A 68-year-old male with a history of stable ischemic heart disease underwent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery one year ago.
He has been asymptomatic on dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) with aspirin and clopidogrel.

He has a high bleeding risk (PRECISE-DAPT score of 30).

According to the most recent ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the most appropriate recommendation for his antiplatelet therapy at this time?

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