Free Hospice and Palliative Nurse Trivia Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers

Question 1: With the following exception, the advanced practice nurse in palliative care should be skilled in all of the following:

Maintaining knowledge of current evidence-based evaluation and treatments in palliative care
Administering medication with the primary purpose of hastening death (Correct answer)
Providing direct education to patients and caregivers
Providing consultation to other medical professionals in complicated palliative care cases

Correct answer: Administering medication with the primary purpose of hastening death

The core principle of palliative care is to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for patients and families facing serious illness, without hastening or postponing death. Administering medication with the primary purpose of hastening death is contrary to the ethical guidelines and philosophy of palliative care. The other options describe essential skills for an advanced practice nurse in this field.

Question 2: All of the following, with one exception, are typical signs of late-stage dementia:

Inability to walk
Incontinence
Urinary retention (Correct answer)
Swallowing difficulty

Correct answer: Urinary retention

In late-stage dementia, patients typically experience severe cognitive decline leading to a loss of basic bodily functions. This commonly includes incontinence (loss of bladder control), inability to walk, and swallowing difficulties (dysphagia). Urinary retention, while possible in some medical conditions, is not a typical or primary sign of late-stage dementia; rather, incontinence is more characteristic.

Question 3: Mary, a 73-year-old patient, has smoked for 50 years. She has a barrel chest, dyspnea, and supraclavicular retractions with effort. She is quite skinny. Which oxygen concentration would work best for Mary?

40% venti-mask
6L per N/C
2L per N/C prn (Correct answer)
None

Correct answer: 2L per N/C prn

Mary's symptoms (barrel chest, dyspnea, supraclavicular retractions, skinny) are indicative of severe COPD, likely emphysema. Patients with chronic hypercapnia often rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe, meaning high oxygen concentrations can suppress their respiratory drive. Therefore, low-flow oxygen, such as 2L per nasal cannula as needed, is the safest approach to avoid respiratory depression while still providing some relief.

Question 4: You are providing care for a patient who has bone-metastasizing cancer. Which of the following adjuvant drugs do you think should be prescribed?

Pamidronate (Correct answer)
Clonzapam
Trazodone
Baclofen

Correct answer: Pamidronate

Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate medication commonly prescribed as an adjuvant therapy for cancer patients with bone metastases. It works by inhibiting osteoclast activity, which helps reduce bone resorption, prevent pathological fractures, and manage hypercalcemia associated with bone destruction. The other listed medications are not primarily used for bone metastases.

Question 5: Renal failure's primary cause is

Diabetes (Correct answer)
HIV
Infections
Acute injury

Correct answer: Diabetes

Diabetes mellitus is the leading cause of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and end-stage renal disease (ESRD) worldwide. High blood glucose levels over time damage the small blood vessels in the kidneys, impairing their ability to filter waste products from the blood. This progressive damage, known as diabetic nephropathy, ultimately leads to renal failure.

Question 6: Unilateral vesicular eruptions are observed by a nurse uWhich of the following describes the patient's back's dermatomal distribution ought to be doubted?

Herpes simplex
Hives
Herpes zoster (Correct answer)
Contact dermatitis

Correct answer: Herpes zoster

Unilateral vesicular eruptions following a dermatomal distribution are the hallmark characteristic of Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. This condition is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which travels along a specific nerve pathway to the skin, causing a painful rash in that particular dermatome.

Question 7: The needs of dying patients were disregarded in acute care settings, which gave rise to the modern hospice movement. Unlike acute care, hospice focuses on:

Comfort of the patient (Correct answer)
Improvement of abnormal blood work
Monitoring the disease process
Prolonging life

Correct answer: Comfort of the patient

The modern hospice movement emerged to address the unmet needs of dying patients in acute care, which often prioritized cure over comfort. Unlike acute care, hospice care focuses on providing holistic comfort, managing symptoms, and enhancing the quality of life for patients and their families during the end-of-life journey. The primary goal is patient comfort and dignity.

Question 8: A patient suffering from anorexia nervosa who reports of feebleness and insufficient energy to:

Address electrolyte imbalance
Induce a feeling of well-being.
Increase strength. (Correct answer)
Treat underlying infection.

Correct answer: Increase strength.

A patient with anorexia nervosa experiencing feebleness and insufficient energy is suffering from severe malnutrition and muscle wasting. The primary goal in addressing these physical symptoms is to increase their strength and overall physical capacity. While addressing electrolyte imbalance is crucial for safety, increasing strength directly targets the reported physical weakness and improves functional ability.

Question 9: The daily maximum amount of acetaminophen is _ grams.

8
6
4
2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2

The recommended maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for adults is generally 4 grams (4000 mg) for short-term use in healthy individuals. However, for long-term use, in older adults, or those with liver impairment, the recommended maximum daily dose is often reduced to 2-3 grams (2000-3000 mg) to minimize the risk of hepatotoxicity. Given the options, 2 grams is the safest and most conservative answer, especially in a general exam context where patient vulnerabilities might be implied.

Question 10: Designating which of the following is an example of an advance directive?

A preferred hospice provider
An executor of the estate
A healthcare surrogate (Correct answer)
A legal next of kin

Correct answer: A healthcare surrogate

An advance directive is a legal document that allows individuals to make decisions about their future medical care, should they become unable to express their wishes. Designating a healthcare surrogate (also known as a durable power of attorney for healthcare or healthcare proxy) is a common form of advance directive, empowering a chosen person to make medical decisions on the patient's behalf.

Question 11: A patient has spinal cord compression, metastatic lung cancer, and a the patient's venous access device, tachycardia, mental rigors, heated, dry skin, and changes in status are early indicators of

Superior vena cava syndrome.
Septic shock. (Correct answer)
Dehydration.
Thrombosis.

Correct answer: Septic shock.

The patient's symptoms—tachycardia, mental status changes (rigors), heated/dry skin (early 'warm shock' phase), and the presence of a venous access device (potential source of infection)—are classic early indicators of septic shock. Septic shock is a life-threatening condition caused by the body's overwhelming response to an infection, leading to organ dysfunction and requiring immediate intervention.

Free Hospice and Palliative Nurse Trivia Questions and Answers

With the following exception, the advanced practice nurse in palliative care should be skilled in all of the following: