Free CGRN MCQ Questions and Answers 1 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which of the following dairy products has the LOWEST CONTENT for lactose intolerant people?
- Greek-style whole-fat yogurt (Correct answer)
- Whole milk
- Cheese
- Regular whole-fat yogurt
Correct answer: Greek-style whole-fat yogurt
People who are lactose intolerant are more likely to accept Greek yogurt than other dairy products because it is thicker than conventional whole-fat yogurt, more of the whey is eliminated, and the lactose is part of the whey. Due to a lack of the enzyme required to digest lactose, those lactose intolerant experience stomach pain, gas, distention, and diarrhea after consuming dairy products. Today, certain dairy products are lactose-free, and Lactaid® can be used to supplement lost enzymes.
Question 2: Which of the following time frames should multi-use vials accessed and used be thrown away within unless otherwise indicated by the manufacturer?
- 14 days
- One week
- 60 days
- 28 days (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 28 days
Multi-use vials accessed and used should be disposed of within 28 days unless the manufacturer specifies otherwise. Preservatives are included in multi-use vials. However, they are susceptible to bacterial contamination and do not offer virus protection. To avoid accidental contamination, multi-use vials should, wherever feasible, be designated for just one patient and kept in a different location from the treatment area. A fresh needle and syringe should be used each time the vial is accessed.
Question 3: Which one of the following is a benzodiapine reversal medication for an overly sedated patient?
- Romazicon (Flumazenil) (Correct answer)
- Atropine
- N=acetylcysteine
- Naloxone (Narcan)
Correct answer: Romazicon (Flumazenil)
Although it does not cure respiratory depression, Romazicon (Flumazenil®) is a reversal medication for excessive sedation of a patient who has received a benzodiazepine. Romazicon is injected intravenously in increments of 0.2 mg over 30 seconds, with further doses given as necessary at one-minute intervals. The third and subsequent dosages are 0.5 mg, with the second dose being 0.3 mg. Naloxone is used to treat opioid overdoses, epinephrine treats asystole, VF, and PEA urgently, and N-acetylcysteine treats acetaminophen overdose.
Question 4: Which of the following symptoms, after an esophagoscopy to acquire a biopsy of the thoracic esophagus, MOST suggest the need for urgent treatment for perforation?
- Mild cough and sore throat
- Chest pain, dysphagia, and tachycardia (Correct answer)
- Local discomfort but no systemic response
- Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: Chest pain, dysphagia, and tachycardia
Chest discomfort, dysphagia, and tachycardia are signs that a perforation needs urgent care after an esophagoscopy to acquire a biopsy of the thoracic esophagus. Fever frequently comes on quickly, and since air is leaking into the mediastinum, the Hamann's sign—a crushing, rasping sound that coincides with the heartbeat—is a good indicator. Perforation is often verified radiologically, although CT or endoscopy may be required if the perforation cannot be detected on an X-ray.
Question 5: After consuming vegetables contaminated with E. coli (O157:H7), a 76-year-old woman experienced non-bloody diarrhea for 48 hours before turning bloody for four days. Which of the following conditions is the PATIENT'S HIGHEST RISK for developing?
- Hemolytic uremic syndrome (Correct answer)
- Intestinal necrosis
- Small bowel obstruction
- Intestinal perforation
Correct answer: Hemolytic uremic syndrome
The patient is at risk for developing hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which can result in renal failure, after consuming (O157.H7)-contaminated vegetables and experiencing cramping in the abdomen and non-bloody diarrhea that continued for 48 hours before becoming bloody for four days. The risk of developing HUS is highest in children under five or older. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and severe renal failure are the hallmarks of HUS.
Question 6: A metoclopramide-using patient has been given a haloperidol prescription. Which of the following conditions does this medication combination put the patient at higher risk for?
- GI bleeding
- Tachycardia
- Tardive dyskinesia (Correct answer)
- Excessive sedation
Correct answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Patients who combine metoclopramide with haloperidol are more likely to get tardive dyskinesia due to this medication interaction. Both medications can potentially create uncontrolled movement problems, and their combination can have a fatal neuroleptic malignant syndrome. With metoclopramide medication lasting more than 12 weeks, there is an increased chance of developing tardive dyskinesia. Numerous additional medications, such as phenothiazines and other antipsychotics, as well as metoclopramide, may interact with one another.
Question 7: Which of the following should be done if a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy has a nose stud and an enclosed lip ring?
- Leave both in place
- Remove the lip ring and tape the nose stud securely
- Remove the nose stud but leave the lip ring in place
- Remove both prior to the procedure (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Remove both prior to the procedure
A nose stud and enclosing lip ring should be taken out of a patient who has a colonoscopy before the procedure because they increase the risk of trauma and aspiration if they get dislodged. Nose studs are removed by gently pressing down while pushing outward. Enclosed lip rings can be removed by applying pressure within the call to drive the ends apart. A bead on the back of jewelry of the barbell style unscrews counterclockwise.
Free CGRN MCQ Questions and Answers 1
Which of the following dairy products has the LOWEST CONTENT for lactose intolerant people?