FREE Certified Surgical Technologist Practice Test Questions and Answers
After being moved from the operating room to the PACU, the patient tells the nurse, "I feel like I'm about to puke up," after being assessed. Which of the following is the nurse's best course of action?
Explanation:
In response, the nurse should say, "I'm going to flip you on your side now." For a patient who can turn, doing this move is recommended since vomiting will prevent aspirating stomach contents. When a patient reports feeling queasy or throwing up, the nurse needs to act fast. Stomach acid vomiting may cause aspiration into the lungs and breathing problems.
During the healing process following surgery, which of the following nursing diagnoses is the patient most likely to have?
Explanation:
Ineffective thermoregulation is the most likely nursing diagnosis for the patient. In addition to being exposed on the operating room table for several hours, anesthesia may have an impact on the patient's capacity to regulate their body temperature. Despite the fact that every patient is unique and could have a variety of nursing diagnoses following transfer, inadequate thermoregulation might be more typical. In order to maintain heat, the nurse should often check the patient's temperature and keep them covered with blankets.
The nurse holds the needle with the bevel up before inserting it into the skin to begin an intravenous line. What is the rationale behind this method?
Explanation:
The idea of holding the needle with the bevel up is to lessen skin harm. In this position, the needle may enter the skin more readily and is less likely to harm the skin or vein. This procedure may also make it simpler for the nurse to start an intravenous line without leaving a mark on the skin or resulting in bleeding at the spot.
The term used to describe anesthesia that combines an inhalation drug, a narcotic, a hypnotic-sedative, and a muscle relaxant is:
Explanation:
Balanced anesthesia is the name given to the type of anesthesia that combines hypnotic-sedatives, narcotics, muscle relaxants, and inhalation drugs. Similar to general anesthesia, this form of anesthesia has repercussions. The most frequent usage for it is during surgery when the patient requires general anesthesia for sleep.
Which of the following is an advantage of using depilatory cream to the skin prior to surgery?
Explanation:
The use of depilatory cream as part of skin preparation prior to surgery has the advantages of keeping the skin at the surgical site intact and, in some cases, allowing the patient to apply the cream themselves. Depilatory lotion maintains the skin intact and makes it less likely to contract an infection by avoiding cutting or shaving for hair removal. It is simple to use, and in some private circumstances, the patient could feel more at ease using the cream themselves.
What should be done with equipment that are difficult to clean after being used on a person who has Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Explanation:
The nurse should start decontamination by using a steam autoclave when handling devices that are difficult to clean after being used on a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. This lethal condition can spread between patients via surgical tools. The prion that is linked to this illness is exceedingly difficult to remove using traditional sterilization techniques, and if the right protocol is not followed, it could even become more fixed to infected devices.
After the patient has been moved to the surgical unit, which of the following procedures can the nurse carry out to lower the risk of infection?
Explanation:
The nurse should take out the indwelling catheter as soon as feasible in order to lower the risk of infection in the postoperative phase. An environment for bacterial growth in the bladder and urinary system is created when a catheter is left in place for longer than is necessary. The catheter shouldn't be removed by the nurse before it is necessary, but after the patient can move around and use the restroom, the catheter may need to be taken out to prevent infection.
Which of the following tests evaluates fibrinogen and the clotting factors V, VII, and X to determine coagulation?
Explanation:
The prothrombin time test evaluates fibrinogen and clotting factors V, VII, and X to determine coagulation. The results of this kind of test can be used to assess clotting potential, the effectiveness of specific medications, and surgical risk factors in at-risk patients. Depending on the treatment, the patient with reduced coagulation may need to have surgery delayed.
For a patient who has been diagnosed with anxiety connected to the surgery, which of the following is not a nursing intervention?
Explanation:
The nurse should not just contact a social worker to come and stay with the patient if the patient has been diagnosed with anxiety due to the surgical operation. In order to help the patient express their fears and to get them ready for surgery, the nurse should strive to stay with them as much as possible. Anxiety can also be reduced by teaching the patient relaxation skills and limiting outside distractions.
What features of the PACU might promote the psychological health of a surgical patient?
Explanation:
In order to protect the patient during recovery from bright glare, the PACU frequently employs dim lighting. To ensure a seamless transition during the healing process, the PACU frequently promotes calm and rest. Some patients experience violent awakenings from anesthesia, and additional distractions like people or monitors may only exacerbate their fear.
What sort of physical characteristics should a polycythemia patient with surgery present have?
Explanation:
When a patient has polycythemia, their hands, feet, and face will all appear reddish blue. Increased red blood cell counts and blood pooling in some capillaries are symptoms of polycythemia. Increased platelet and white blood cell counts may also be a result of the illness. A patient with polycythemia could also experience phlebitis symptoms or complain of itchy skin.
Which of the following actions compromises the sterile field's integrity?
Explanation:
The sterile field may be compromised if supplies are set up beforehand and covered with sterile towels for security. The nurse might not be aware if something happens in the surroundings that compromises the sterile field if the sterile instruments are set up in advance. Covering with towels and then removing them later may unintentionally increase the chance of the objects getting wet or introduce more bacteria through air currents.
The patient's blood pressure is 148/100 mmHg as they enter the recovery area. The anesthesiologist reports that the patient has no previous cardiac history and is currently asymptomatic. What will the nurse do next?
Explanation:
The nurse should check the patient for signs of increased discomfort and anxiety and listen to the patient's heart and lung sounds. If a patient's blood pressure is elevated and they don't have a history of heart disease, they may be anxious or in pain, which is raising their blood pressure. The nurse should also pay attention to respiratory and heart sounds to hear for anomalies. Hypertension can also be brought on by pulmonary edema or an increase in blood volume.
The nurse is performing a preoperative assessment on a patient and notes that they have a heart murmur. When assessing intensity of a cardiac murmur, what question should the nurse ask themself?
Explanation:
The nurse should ask themselves, "How loud is the murmur?" when determining the strength of a heart murmur. The murmur's volume is measured by intensity, which is normally graded from a very quiet grade I murmur to a loud grade VI murmur. By auscultating with a stethoscope, the nurse can determine the severity of the murmur and can then inform the doctor of their findings.
A patient is moved to the post-operative ward, and the nurse is informed of their condition. They learn about the patient's history of thrombocytopenia during the report. Which of the following actions should the nurse do to lower the likelihood that this patient may create a blood clot?
Explanation:
The nurse should give preventive aspirin as directed to lower the risk of blood clot formation and advise the patient to avoid crossing their legs. In order to stop platelets from adhering to one another, aspirin acts as an anticoagulant. The patient should avoid crossing their legs because this can obstruct the lower leg's blood arteries and encourage clotting.
Which of the following must the nurse make sure the patient understands before the fiberoptic colonoscopy?
Explanation:
The lavage fluid may be consumed orally or through a nasogastric tube, which the nurse must explain to the patient before the fiberoptic colonoscopy. In order for the doctor to see the interior structures while doing the treatment, this fluid cleans and prepares the bowel. Following the cleansing solution, the patient usually needs to stop taking all medications, and they might need to drink less water for one to two days prior to the surgery.