Free BSGS Political Science Question and Answer — Questions and Answers

Question 1: The Constitution of India's Preamble was amended to include the word "Secular" by

Seventh Amendment Act
Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
First Amendment Act
Forty-Second Amendment Act (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Forty-Second Amendment Act

The word "Secular" was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the Forty-Second Amendment Act of 1976. This significant amendment, enacted during the Emergency, explicitly declared India to be a "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic." Its inclusion reinforced the constitutional commitment to religious neutrality and equal respect for all religions.

Question 2: Discrimination against any citizen is prohibited by Article 15(1) because of

Religion,caste,sex and place of birth only
Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of themArticle 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of (Correct answer)
Religion, race and caste only
Religion, caste and sex only

Correct answer: Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of themArticle 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of

Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution explicitly prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen solely on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, or any combination of these. This fundamental right ensures equality and prevents prejudice based on these specific personal attributes. It is a cornerstone of India's commitment to a non-discriminatory society.

Question 3: Which clause in the Constitution mandates that the Union must make sure that every State's government is operating in conformity with its rules?

Article 355 (Correct answer)
Article 360
Article 352
Article 356

Correct answer: Article 355

Article 355 of the Indian Constitution imposes a crucial duty on the Union government to protect every State from external aggression and internal disturbance. Furthermore, it mandates that the Union must ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This article provides the constitutional basis for central intervention to uphold constitutional governance in states.

Question 4: According to Article 21 of the Constitution, the "right to life" does not include the "right to die." The Supreme Court made this statement in

Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab (Correct answer)
P. Rathinam V. Union of India
Both (A) and (B) above
None of the above

Correct answer: Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab

The Supreme Court, in the landmark case of Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab (1996), definitively ruled that the "right to life" enshrined in Article 21 of the Constitution does not include the "right to die." This judgment overturned an earlier decision in P. Rathinam's case, clarifying that Article 21 guarantees the right to live with dignity, not the right to terminate one's life.

Question 5: A Supreme Court judge may be dismissed from office for the reason(s) of

Proved misbehaviour or incapacity (Correct answer)
Violation of the Constitution
Both (A) and (B) above
None of the above

Correct answer: Proved misbehaviour or incapacity

According to Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court judge can only be removed from office on the grounds of "proved misbehaviour or incapacity." This is a stringent process involving a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority. These are the only constitutionally specified reasons for the dismissal of a Supreme Court judge, ensuring judicial independence.

Question 6: None of the above

Public interest
National interest (Correct answer)
Both (A) and (B) above
None of the above

Correct answer: National interest

Assuming the original question was about a key concept in governance or policy-making, "National interest" refers to the overarching goals and objectives that a nation seeks to achieve in its foreign and domestic policy, often prioritizing the security, prosperity, and well-being of the state and its citizens. It serves as a fundamental guiding principle for governmental decisions, particularly in matters of defense, economy, and international relations.

Question 7: The Grund norm hypothesis was proposed by

Austin
Hart
Kelson (Correct answer)
Diguit

Correct answer: Kelson

The Grundnorm hypothesis, a cornerstone of legal positivism, was proposed by the Austrian jurist Hans Kelsen. In his "Pure Theory of Law," Kelsen posited the Grundnorm as a hypothetical, fundamental norm that underpins the entire legal system, providing ultimate validity to all other legal rules and regulations. It is not a positive law but a presupposition necessary for understanding the hierarchical structure of law.

Question 8: Immanuel Kant is a representative of

Preventive theory of punishment
Retributive theory of punishment (Correct answer)
Detterent theory of punishment
Reformative theory of punishment

Correct answer: Retributive theory of punishment

Immanuel Kant is a prominent proponent of the retributive theory of punishment. According to Kant's deontological ethics, punishment should be inflicted solely because a crime has been committed, as a matter of justice and moral desert, rather than for its potential to deter future crimes or reform the offender. He argued that punishment must be proportionate to the offense, upholding the moral law.

Question 9: Who among the following said that "administrative and legal development" was a part of political growth?

Edward Shills.
Paul Baron.
Max Weber. (Correct answer)
James S. Coleman.

Correct answer: Max Weber.

Max Weber, a foundational figure in sociology and political economy, extensively linked administrative and legal development to political growth. His theories on bureaucracy and legal-rational authority emphasized how the rationalization of administrative structures and the establishment of a formal legal system are integral to the modernization and development of political systems. Weber saw these elements as essential for the functioning of modern states.

Question 10: What was an aspect of the Government of India Act, 1919 that was not the following?

The Legislative Assembly would have an elected majority and control over ministers. (Correct answer)
Communal representation was not only retained but extended.
Enlarged the electorates both for provinces and emperial legislature.
Provision for a bicameral legislature at the centre.

Correct answer: The Legislative Assembly would have an elected majority and control over ministers.

The Government of India Act, 1919, while introducing significant reforms, did not grant the Legislative Assembly an elected majority with full control over ministers. Under this Act, the central legislature had limited powers, and the Executive Council, which was not responsible to the legislature, retained substantial authority. True ministerial control by an elected majority was a later development, making this statement an incorrect aspect of the 1919 Act.

Question 11: Who among the following established a connection between the institutional frameworks used before and after Indian independence to analyze Indian politics?

Myron Weiner
Morries Jones (Correct answer)
Rajni Kothari
Morries Jones

Correct answer: Morries Jones

W.H. Morris-Jones, a distinguished political scientist, is renowned for establishing a crucial connection between India's pre-independence and post-independence institutional frameworks in his analysis of Indian politics. His work highlighted the significant continuities and adaptations of colonial administrative and political structures in shaping the independent Indian state. He argued that understanding the colonial legacy was essential for comprehending post-1947 political developments.

Question 12: Which of the following statements regarding the Constitution's amendment under Article 368 is untrue?

The Bill must be passed by special majority (2/3RD present and voting and more than 50% of the total membership).
In case of disagreement between the Houses joint sitting may be called (Correct answer)
Contract does not put an end to the Law of Nature
The Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament.

Correct answer: In case of disagreement between the Houses joint sitting may be called

The statement that a joint sitting may be called in case of disagreement between the Houses for a constitutional amendment bill under Article 368 is untrue. Unlike ordinary legislation, there is no provision for a joint sitting of Parliament to resolve a deadlock on a constitutional amendment bill. Such a bill must be passed independently by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with the specified special majority, failing which the bill lapses.

Question 13: Which article of the Indian Constitution gives the Parliament the authority to make arrangements for an eventuality where the positions of President and Vice-President become empty due to a death, resignation, removal, or other circumstance?

Article 123
Article 70 (Correct answer)
Article 58
Article 72

Correct answer: Article 70

Article 70 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make provisions for the discharge of the President's functions in any contingency not explicitly covered by other constitutional articles. This includes situations where both the President and Vice-President's offices become vacant simultaneously due to death, resignation, or removal, ensuring a continuous line of authority for the Head of State.

Question 14: Since 1989, India has seen fewer prime ministerial abuses of authority than either Margaret Thatcher or Tony Blair did for the United Kingdom. Whose assertion is this?

Atul Kohli
Christophe Jafferlot
James Manor (Correct answer)
Granville Austin

Correct answer: James Manor

This assertion is attributed to James Manor, a distinguished scholar of comparative politics specializing in India. Manor has argued that India's democratic system, characterized by its robust institutions, coalition politics, and vibrant civil society, has often acted as a stronger check on prime ministerial power compared to the experiences of leaders like Margaret Thatcher or Tony Blair in the UK. He suggests that India's political landscape has historically made it more difficult for a single leader to centralize excessive authority.

Question 15: Who among the following believes that the Supreme Court of India has both a legal and a public personality?

Granville Austin
Madhav Khosla and Ananth Padmanabhan (Correct answer)
N. Robinson
Upendra Baxi

Correct answer: Madhav Khosla and Ananth Padmanabhan

Madhav Khosla and Ananth Padmanabhan are legal scholars who have articulated the view that the Supreme Court of India possesses both a distinct legal and a public personality. They argue that beyond its formal role as the interpreter of the Constitution and dispenser of justice, the Court also plays a significant public role in shaping national discourse, upholding democratic values, and responding to societal concerns, thereby influencing public perception and trust.

Question 16: Who refers to the Indian Election Commission as the "bulwork of free and fair elections"?

Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph (Correct answer)
Alistair McMillan
R.P. Bhalla
M. Katju

Correct answer: Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph

Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph, prominent American political scientists known for their extensive work on India, have famously referred to the Indian Election Commission as the "bulwark of free and fair elections." They recognized the Commission's critical role in upholding democratic integrity by independently conducting elections, enforcing electoral laws, and ensuring transparency and fairness in the world's largest democracy.

Free BSGS Political Science Question and Answer

The Constitution of India's Preamble was amended to include the word "Secular" by