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Board Certified Ophthalmologist FREE Board Certified Ophthalmologist Glaucoma Diagnosis and Management Questions and Answers

A 68-year-old male with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) presents for a follow-up visit.
His intraocular pressure (IOP) is 18 mmHg in both eyes on a prostaglandin analog.

Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) of the retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) shows progressive thinning in the inferotemporal quadrant of the right eye compared to the previous year.

Visual field testing remains reliable and full.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Select your answer