FREE ABO Retina and Vitreous Disorders Questions and Answers

Question 1

A 68-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a sudden, painless floater in his right eye.
Fundus examination reveals neovascularization of the disc (NVD) greater than 1/3 disc area and a mild vitreous hemorrhage.
According to the Diabetic Retinopathy Study (DRS), what is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Prompt panretinal photocoagulation (PRP).

Answer

Observation with strict glucose control.

Answer

Intravitreal anti-VEGF injection alone.

Answer

Focal laser photocoagulation to the macula.

Question 2

A 75-year-old female reports gradual blurring of her central vision and difficulty reading. Optical coherence tomography (OCT) reveals large, soft drusen and retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) atrophy. A fluorescein angiogram (FA) is performed. Which of the following FA findings would be most consistent with a diagnosis of neovascular (wet) age-related macular degeneration (AMD) rather than the non-neovascular (dry) form?

Accepted Answer

Early hyperfluorescence with late leakage from an undefined source.

Answer

Window defects corresponding to areas of RPE atrophy.

Answer

Blocking of fluorescence due to pigment clumping.

Answer

Slow, late staining of drusen.

Question 3

Which of the following is considered the strongest predisposing risk factor for the development of a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment (RRD)?

Accepted Answer

Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD).

Answer

Lattice degeneration.

Answer

Blunt ocular trauma.

Answer

High myopia.

Question 4

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of sudden, profound, and painless vision loss in his left eye. His visual acuity is hand motion. Fundus examination reveals diffuse retinal whitening, arteriolar attenuation, and a prominent 'cherry-red spot' in the macula. What is the most critical immediate step in this patient's management?

Accepted Answer

Immediate referral for a comprehensive stroke workup.

Answer

Initiation of high-dose oral corticosteroids.

Answer

Anterior chamber paracentesis.

Answer

Scheduling for urgent vitrectomy.

Question 5

A 45-year-old patient is diagnosed with retinitis pigmentosa (RP). Which of the following findings constitutes the classic clinical triad observed on funduscopic examination for this condition?

Accepted Answer

Arteriolar attenuation, waxy optic disc pallor, and bone-spicule pigmentation.

Answer

Optic disc drusen, macular edema, and peripheral hemorrhages.

Answer

Choroidal folds, serous detachments, and vitritis.

Answer

Cotton-wool spots, venous beading, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA).

Question 6

A 72-year-old patient with symptomatic vitreomacular traction is treated with an intravitreal injection of ocriplasmin. What is the primary mechanism of action of this drug?

Accepted Answer

Enzymatic cleavage of proteins at the vitreoretinal interface.

Answer

Inhibition of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).

Answer

Reduction of intraocular inflammation via corticosteroid action.

Answer

Osmotic dehydration of the vitreous gel.