FRCR Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FRCR facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. How long is the recommended study period candidates typically allocate before sitting the FRCR Part 1 examination? → 3–4 months of dedicated revision
2. In a bone scan, which radiopharmaceutical is most commonly used? → Technetium-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP)
3. Which pattern of enhancement on dynamic contrast-enhanced MRI of the breast is most suspicious for malignancy? → Rapid initial enhancement with washout on delayed phases (type III kinetics)
4. What is the format of the FRCR Physics exam? → Multiple-choice written questions
5. In fluoroscopy, which mode delivers the highest dose rate to the patient? → High-dose-rate (boost/magnification) mode
6. On coronal CT of the chest, which structure separates the superior mediastinum from the posterior mediastinum? → Plane of the sternal angle (angle of Louis)
7. The hepatic veins drain into the IVC at which level? → T8
8. What is the most common abdominal malignancy in children under 5 years of age? → Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)
9. Which structure passes through the foramen ovale of the skull base? → Mandibular nerve (V3)
10. For FRCR Part 2A preparation, which subject area typically requires the greatest revision time due to its breadth? → Gastrointestinal and hepatobiliary radiology
11. A study group for FRCR preparation is most beneficial when structured around which activity? → Discussing cases and teaching each other subspecialty topics in rotation
12. Which training initiative forms the basis of the FRCR physics notes? → R-ITI e-learning
13. On a coronal MRI of the knee, which structure lies within the intercondylar notch? → Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
14. On MRI of the wrist, the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) is anchored to which ulnar structure? → Ulnar styloid process
15. Which radiopharmaceutical is used to image pheochromocytoma and paraganglioma in nuclear medicine? → I-123 or I-131 MIBG (metaiodobenzylguanidine)
16. Which imaging modality is most commonly used for radiation therapy treatment planning? → CT simulation
17. The most appropriate initial imaging for a child with suspected pyloric stenosis is: → Ultrasound
18. A registrar is struggling to balance FRCR preparation with clinical duties. What is the most recommended approach? → Protect dedicated weekly study time and use clinical exposure to reinforce exam topics
19. What is the Seldinger technique? → Percutaneous vessel access using a needle, guidewire, and catheter sequence
20. A 38-year-old presents with sudden-onset 'thunderclap' headache. Non-contrast CT of the brain is negative. What is the next most appropriate investigation? → Lumbar puncture for xanthochromia
21. In the context of radiation protection, what is the primary purpose of the dose length product (DLP) in CT? → To estimate effective dose from a CT examination for patient dose monitoring
22. In inferior vena cava filter placement, what is the preferred infrarenal placement position? → Below the renal veins to preserve renal vein drainage
23. What is the primary mechanism of radiation-induced DNA damage that leads to cell death? → Double-strand DNA breaks
24. What can the FRCR physics notes be used for other than exam preparation? → Learning about the physics of radiology
25. What is the maximum number of attempts allowed for any FRCR examination? → 6
26. Which radioisotope is used in most nuclear medicine diagnostic studies in the US? → Technetium-99m
27. For FRCR Part 1, which topic within radiobiology most commonly appears in examination questions? → Cell survival curves and radiation sensitivity of tissues
28. What is the purpose of added filtration in a diagnostic X-ray tube? → Remove low-energy photons that add dose without contributing to image
29. Gallium-68 DOTATATE PET-CT is the preferred imaging modality for: → Gastroenteropancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (NETs)
30. A 'superscan' on Tc-99m MDP bone scintigraphy is characterized by: → Diffusely increased skeletal uptake with absent renal and soft tissue activity