FP-C Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FP-C facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A post-partum patient develops heavy vaginal bleeding unresponsive to fundal massage. What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage? → Uterine atony
2. When administering magnesium sulfate, which antidote must be immediately available? → Calcium gluconate 1 g IV
3. When transporting a patient with suspected placental abruption, which finding MOST suggests fetal compromise? → Fetal bradycardia below 100 bpm
4. An anaphylactic patient remains hypotensive after 2 doses of IM epinephrine and 2L IV fluid. What is the next pharmacological intervention? → Epinephrine IV infusion at 0.1-0.5 mcg/kg/min
5. During the transport of a patient with extensive burns and associated trauma, which of the following is the primary goal of fluid resuscitation? → To maintain end-organ perfusion, evidenced by adequate urine output.
6. Which finding on physical exam is MOST consistent with early (Class I) hemorrhagic shock? → Anxiety, normal BP, pulse less than 100 bpm
7. A 45-year-old diabetic patient is found unconscious with a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate initial treatment? → Administer 50% dextrose intravenously
8. What is the primary concern when managing a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury in a trauma situation? → Immobilizing the spine to prevent further injury
9. At altitude (e.g., 8,000 ft cabin altitude), which change in a ventilated patient's gas volumes should the flight paramedic anticipate? → Gas volumes will expand due to decreased atmospheric pressure (Boyle's Law)
10. Which medication is typically used as a first-line treatment for anaphylaxis in the pre-hospital setting? → Epinephrine
11. In the context of trauma care, what does the acronym "MARCH" stand for? → Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Hypothermia/Head injury
12. When assessing a patient's level of consciousness, which tool is most commonly used? → Glascow Coma Scale (GCS)
13. In volume-control ventilation, if the patient's lung compliance decreases, which parameter will change? → Peak inspiratory pressure
14. What is the initial drug of choice for eclamptic seizures in the prehospital setting? → Magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV over 15-20 minutes
15. What is the first step in assessing a trauma patient in a pre-hospital setting? → Assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)
16. CPAP differs from BiPAP primarily in that CPAP: → Delivers a single continuous pressure throughout the respiratory cycle
17. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient in hemorrhagic shock? → Applying pressure to the bleeding site and initiating fluid resuscitation
18. Which mnemonic is commonly used to gather a patient’s history during assessment → SAMPLE
19. What does the "P" in the OPQRST mnemonic stand for when assessing a patient's pain? → Provocation/Palliation
20. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for performing a surgical cricothyrotomy in an adult patient? → Transection of the trachea with retraction of the distal end
21. A pregnant patient at 20 weeks is found supine and unconscious. What positional intervention should be performed immediately? → Left lateral tilt or manual uterine displacement
22. A 32-week pregnant patient presents with painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the flight paramedic suspect first? → Placenta previa
23. A high-pressure alarm is triggered on the transport ventilator. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause? → ETT cuff deflation
24. A patient presents with Beck's triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds, jugular venous distension). Which type of shock does this suggest? → Obstructive shock from cardiac tamponade
25. What is the primary mechanism by which tranexamic acid (TXA) improves outcomes in hemorrhagic shock? → Inhibits fibrinolysis by blocking plasminogen activation
26. Which sign differentiates placental abruption from placenta previa on physical assessment? → Painful uterine rigidity
27. A neonate delivered at 28 weeks requires intubation. What is the correct ET tube size? → 2.5 mm uncuffed
28. During neonatal resuscitation, what is the target peripheral oxygen saturation 5 minutes after birth in a term infant? → 80-85%
29. Patient-ventilator dyssynchrony during transport is BEST identified by: → Observation of patient effort against the ventilator and irregular waveforms
30. A patient in septic shock remains hypotensive after norepinephrine uptitration. Which second-line vasopressor is recommended to spare catecholamine dosing? → Vasopressin 0.03-0.04 units/min