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Cardiac Emergencies Flashcards

7 cards from real FISDAP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A patient in ventricular fibrillation receives a defibrillation shock. What is the FIRST action after shock delivery?

    Answer: Resume CPR immediately

    After defibrillation, CPR should be resumed immediately for 2 minutes before pausing to recheck rhythm, as perfusion may not be restored instantly.

  2. Which ECG finding is most consistent with a left bundle branch block (LBBB)?

    Answer: Broad notched R wave in lead I and V5-V6 with no septal Q waves

    LBBB produces a broad, notched R wave in lateral leads (I, V5-V6) with absent septal Q waves due to abnormal left ventricular depolarization.

  3. A 58-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. His 12-lead ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

    Answer: Right coronary artery

    ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior wall STEMI, most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery.

  4. Dopamine is ordered for a patient in cardiogenic shock. At which dose range does dopamine primarily exert beta-1 adrenergic effects to increase cardiac output?

    Answer: 5-10 mcg/kg/min

    At 5-10 mcg/kg/min, dopamine primarily stimulates beta-1 receptors, increasing heart rate and myocardial contractility to improve cardiac output.

  5. A patient develops pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Which of the following is a reversible cause represented by the 'H's and T's?

    Answer: Hypovolemia

    Hypovolemia is one of the classic 'H' reversible causes of PEA and should be treated with aggressive IV fluid resuscitation.

  6. A patient presents with regular narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 180 bpm. Vagal maneuvers fail. What is the drug of choice for terminating this rhythm?

    Answer: Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push

    Adenosine 6 mg given as a rapid IV push is the first-line pharmacological treatment for stable SVT unresponsive to vagal maneuvers.

  7. When performing synchronized cardioversion on a patient with unstable atrial flutter, where should the sync marker ideally fall on the ECG waveform?

    Answer: On the R wave (QRS complex)

    Synchronized cardioversion delivers the shock on the R wave of the QRS complex to avoid the vulnerable T-wave period, which could precipitate ventricular fibrillation.