FFICM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FFICM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When should documentation of a service or intervention be completed? → As soon as possible after the service is provided
2. What is the primary physiological purpose of applying PEEP in mechanically ventilated patients with ARDS? → Prevent alveolar derecruitment and improve oxygenation
3. What does the term "half-life" refer to in pharmacology? → The time it takes for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
4. Which document sets out the minimum dataset that UK ICUs must submit to the Case Mix Programme (CMP)? → ICNARC CMP Data Specification
5. Which decontamination method is required for flexible bronchoscopes between patient uses? → High-level disinfection (e.g., glutaraldehyde or automated endoscope reprocessor)
6. What is the primary benefit of chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) daily bathing in ICU patients? → Reduces healthcare-associated bloodstream infections
7. What is the purpose of using open-ended questions? → To encourage detailed responses and gather comprehensive information
8. Which statement best describes zero-order kinetics? → A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration
9. What does "PRN" mean in medication orders? → As needed (pro re nata)
10. Which property of a drug most influences its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier? → Molecular weight below 500 Da and high lipid solubility
11. Rocuronium's neuromuscular blockade is antagonised by sugammadex via which mechanism? → Encapsulation of rocuronium molecules reducing free plasma concentration
12. The Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS) score of −3 describes which level of consciousness? → Moderate sedation — movement but no eye contact
13. When disclosing a poor prognosis to a patient's family in the ICU, which communication framework is most evidence-based? → SPIKES (Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotions, Summary)
14. The CURB-65 score is used to evaluate severity in which condition? → Community-acquired pneumonia
15. Which of the following best describes the principle of 'source isolation' in infection control? → Placing an infected or colonized patient in a single room to prevent outward spread
16. In the ABCDEF bundle, what does the 'E' component stand for? → Exercise and early mobility
17. A propensity score analysis is conducted in an ICU study. The propensity score represents: → The probability of receiving the treatment given observed baseline characteristics
18. Why is it important to check for drug allergies before administration? → To prevent potentially life-threatening allergic reactions
19. What does the acronym AED stand for? → Automated External Defibrillator
20. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV) is most strongly indicated in COPD exacerbation when: → The patient has hypercapnic respiratory failure with arterial pH 7.25–7.35
21. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has the following results: Na⁺ 130 mEq/L, glucose 600 mg/dL. What is the corrected serum sodium? → 142 mEq/L
22. Which clinical sign is most sensitive for detecting early hepatic encephalopathy (Grade I) in an ICU patient with acute liver failure? → Altered sleep-wake cycle and subtle personality change
23. Why are sedation protocols important in the ICU? → To ensure adequate sedation and minimize complications
24. In pressure-controlled ventilation (PCV), which parameter is directly set by the clinician? → Inspiratory pressure above PEEP
25. Which change in critical illness most commonly increases the volume of distribution of hydrophilic antibiotics? → Capillary leak and third spacing expanding the extravascular fluid compartment
26. A therapeutic drug monitoring level is taken 6 hours after an IV dose of vancomycin. The result is best described as: → An area-under-the-curve surrogate correlating with bactericidal activity
27. A patient requires a suprapubic catheter insertion. Which ultrasound finding confirms it is safe to proceed? → Bladder volume > 300 mL with no bowel interposition
28. When designing a crossover trial in critically ill patients, which major limitation must be considered compared to a parallel-group design? → Carryover effects from the first treatment period
29. A patient on CRRT develops citrate toxicity. Which blood gas finding is most characteristic? → Metabolic alkalosis with low ionised calcium
30. In ICU patients, subglottic secretion drainage (SSD) endotracheal tubes primarily prevent VAP by which mechanism? → Removing pooled secretions above the cuff that otherwise microaspirate