FFICM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FFICM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When should documentation of a service or intervention be completed? → As soon as possible after the service is provided
2. What is the primary physiological purpose of applying PEEP in mechanically ventilated patients with ARDS? → Prevent alveolar derecruitment and improve oxygenation
3. What does the term "half-life" refer to in pharmacology? → The time it takes for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
4. Which decontamination method is required for flexible bronchoscopes between patient uses? → High-level disinfection (e.g., glutaraldehyde or automated endoscope reprocessor)
5. What is the primary benefit of chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) daily bathing in ICU patients? → Reduces healthcare-associated bloodstream infections
6. What is the purpose of using open-ended questions? → To encourage detailed responses and gather comprehensive information
7. Which statement best describes zero-order kinetics? → A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration
8. What does "PRN" mean in medication orders? → As needed (pro re nata)
9. Which property of a drug most influences its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier? → Molecular weight below 500 Da and high lipid solubility
10. Rocuronium's neuromuscular blockade is antagonised by sugammadex via which mechanism? → Encapsulation of rocuronium molecules reducing free plasma concentration
11. When disclosing a poor prognosis to a patient's family in the ICU, which communication framework is most evidence-based? → SPIKES (Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotions, Summary)
12. Which of the following best describes the principle of 'source isolation' in infection control? → Placing an infected or colonized patient in a single room to prevent outward spread
13. A propensity score analysis is conducted in an ICU study. The propensity score represents: → The probability of receiving the treatment given observed baseline characteristics
14. Why is it important to check for drug allergies before administration? → To prevent potentially life-threatening allergic reactions
15. What does the acronym AED stand for? → Automated External Defibrillator
16. Why are sedation protocols important in the ICU? → To ensure adequate sedation and minimize complications
17. In pressure-controlled ventilation (PCV), which parameter is directly set by the clinician? → Inspiratory pressure above PEEP
18. Which change in critical illness most commonly increases the volume of distribution of hydrophilic antibiotics? → Capillary leak and third spacing expanding the extravascular fluid compartment
19. A therapeutic drug monitoring level is taken 6 hours after an IV dose of vancomycin. The result is best described as: → An area-under-the-curve surrogate correlating with bactericidal activity
20. When designing a crossover trial in critically ill patients, which major limitation must be considered compared to a parallel-group design? → Carryover effects from the first treatment period
21. In ICU patients, subglottic secretion drainage (SSD) endotracheal tubes primarily prevent VAP by which mechanism? → Removing pooled secretions above the cuff that otherwise microaspirate
22. Which action is essential during any procedure involving sharps? → Using designated sharps containers and following universal precautions
23. What is the normal range for cardiac index in a healthy adult at rest? → 2.2–4.0 L/min/m²
24. A patient with hepatic failure is prescribed a drug with high hepatic extraction ratio (E > 0.7). What is the expected pharmacokinetic consequence? → Markedly increased oral bioavailability due to reduced first-pass effect
25. A cluster of MRSA infections occurs in the ICU. After implementing contact precautions, which additional measure is most likely to identify the source? → Environmental cultures of high-touch surfaces
26. What is the correct sequence for a physical assessment? → Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
27. Which receptor type mediates the inotropic effects of dopamine at doses of 5–10 mcg/kg/min? → Beta-1 adrenoceptors
28. During rapid sequence intubation (RSI) in a hemodynamically unstable trauma patient, which induction agent best preserves cardiovascular stability? → Ketamine 1–2 mg/kg
29. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR? → 30 compressions to 2 ventilations
30. In patients with raised intracranial pressure (ICP), what is the first-line osmotic therapy used to reduce cerebral edema? → Mannitol 20% IV bolus