FE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. In a healthy fetus, the Doppler waveform at the ductus venosus during atrial contraction (a-wave) should be: → Forward (positive) flow
2. Color Doppler aliasing in fetal echocardiography indicates: → Flow velocity exceeding the Nyquist limit
3. A reversed a-wave in the ductus venosus Doppler suggests: → Elevated right atrial pressure or cardiac compromise
4. The normal combined cardiac output (CCO) in a near-term fetus is approximately: → 300–500 mL/kg/min
5. Parvovirus B19 infection in the fetus primarily causes cardiac compromise through: → Severe fetal anemia causing high-output cardiac failure
6. Which cardiomyopathy pattern is most commonly associated with poorly controlled maternal diabetes? → Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with septal hypertrophy
7. Which technique is used to evaluate fetal heart rhythm? → M-mode
8. At what gestational age does the fetal heart typically begin to beat? → 5-6 weeks
9. Which echocardiographic view best identifies ventricular septal defects (VSD)? → Four-chamber view
10. Fetal cardiac rhabdomyomas are associated with which genetic condition in up to 80% of cases? → Tuberous sclerosis complex
11. Which Doppler waveform index is most commonly used to assess umbilical artery resistance? → Pulsatility index (PI)
12. Complete fetal heart block is most strongly associated with which maternal antibody? → Anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies
13. Which finding on fetal echocardiography suggests cardiac dysfunction in a hydropic fetus? → Cardiomegaly with cardiothoracic ratio >0.50
14. Which antiarrhythmic drug is most commonly used as first-line transplacental therapy for fetal SVT? → Digoxin
15. Which fetal cardiac tumor is associated with Turner syndrome and pericardial effusion? → Intrapericardial teratoma
16. In fetal cardiac biometry, z-scores normalize measurements primarily against which parameter? → Estimated fetal weight or gestational age
17. What is the expected right ventricular (RV) to left ventricular (LV) size relationship in a normal fetus on the four-chamber view? → Approximately equal, with the RV mildly dominant (RV:LV ≈ 1.0–1.1)
18. Which ultrasound view is most essential for initial fetal heart screening? → Four-chamber view
19. The four-chamber view Doppler of the mitral and tricuspid inflow shows an A-wave dominant pattern in early gestation because: → Fetal myocardium has reduced compliance, making active filling dominant
20. Which ratio combines umbilical artery and middle cerebral artery Doppler to assess fetal well-being? → Cerebro-placental ratio (CPR)
21. Untreated sustained fetal SVT is most likely to lead to which complication? → Non-immune hydrops fetalis
22. Under normal circumstances, blood flow at the aortic isthmus (AoI) during diastole should be: → Anterograde (forward)
23. What is the normal cardiothoracic area ratio (CTR) in a normal fetus on the four-chamber view? → Less than 0.33 (approximately 1/3 of thoracic area)
24. A fetus with a large, hyperechoic mass in the right atrium with a stalk is most consistent with: → Cardiac myxoma
25. Reversed diastolic flow in the aortic isthmus indicates: → Severe hemodynamic compromise with cerebro-placental pressure reversal
26. In normal fetal circulation, the main pulmonary artery (MPA) to aorta (Ao) diameter ratio is approximately: → 1.1–1.3 (pulmonary artery slightly larger)
27. Which vessel's Doppler waveform shows a characteristic 'a-wave' reflecting atrial contraction? → Ductus venosus
28. A cardiac fibroma in the fetus is most commonly located in which structure? → Interventricular septum or left ventricular free wall
29. The ductus venosus pulsatility index for veins (PIV) is calculated as: → (S − a) / TAMXV
30. The Doppler angle of insonation should ideally be less than how many degrees for accurate velocity measurement? → 60 degrees