FDC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FDC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When validating a new DNA quantification assay, which parameter assesses the assay's ability to give correct results across multiple concentration levels? → Linearity
2. Under Brady v. Maryland, what obligation does the prosecution have regarding exculpatory DNA evidence? → The prosecution must disclose all exculpatory DNA evidence to the defense
3. What does the term 'stutter' refer to in STR analysis? → An artifact peak typically one repeat unit smaller than the true allele
4. What is the primary purpose of DNA evidence in court? → Scientifically reliable identification
5. When a FDC professional encounters an unexpected result during a procedure, the FIRST action should be to: → Stop, assess the situation, and determine whether to proceed or seek guidance
6. Which standard governs the accreditation of forensic DNA laboratories in the United States and is required for CODIS participation? → FBI Quality Assurance Standards (QAS) for Forensic DNA Testing Laboratories
7. Which type of DNA is most useful when biological evidence contains only hair shafts without follicular tissue? → Mitochondrial DNA
8. Under the Fourth Amendment, when is a warrantless collection of a DNA sample from a suspect generally permissible? → During a lawful arrest for a serious offense under statutes like Maryland v. King
9. What is the PRIMARY purpose of maintaining a clear chain of communication in FDC settings? → To ensure accountability, prevent miscommunication, and facilitate timely information flow
10. When a FDC professional encounters an unexpected result during a procedure, the FIRST action should be to: → Stop, assess the situation, and determine whether to proceed or seek guidance
11. In Forensic DNA Certification practice, what is the CORRECT sequence when performing a technical procedure? → Plan, prepare, execute, verify, and document
12. Under SWGDAM guidelines, a forensic DNA laboratory must retain case evidence for a minimum period AFTER which of the following events? → Final legal disposition of the case
13. Which of the following best describes Y-STR analysis? → It analyzes paternal lineage using markers on the Y chromosome
14. Effective communication between Forensic DNA Certification professionals and stakeholders requires which essential element? → Adapting communication style to the audience while maintaining accuracy
15. What is the importance of calibration in forensic lab equipment? → Ensure reliable results
16. Under CODIS rules, who is authorized to receive the identity of a candidate match from NDIS? → Only the laboratory that submitted the forensic profile
17. What law protects genetic information from discrimination? → GINA
18. Which condition MOST accelerates hydrolytic degradation of DNA in a biological sample stored at room temperature? → High relative humidity above 60%
19. What is the primary function of proteinase K in the DNA extraction process? → To digest proteins and inactivate nucleases that would degrade DNA
20. What is the PRIMARY ethical obligation of a certified Forensic DNA Certification professional regarding confidential information? → Protect it from unauthorized disclosure at all times
21. What documentation is essential when collecting evidence? → Date, time, collector, description
22. Which DNA profile index in CODIS contains profiles from unsolved crime scenes? → Forensic Index
23. Which federal law governs the collection, storage, and use of DNA profiles in the national CODIS database? → DNA Identification Act of 1994
24. What legal issue arises when a DNA profile from a genealogy database (e.g., GEDmatch) is used to identify a suspect without their direct knowledge or consent? → Potential Fourth Amendment and privacy law concerns regarding third-party database access
25. What is electrophoresis used for in forensic analysis? → Separating DNA fragments
26. What is a 'negative reagent blank' used to detect in forensic DNA analysis? → Laboratory contamination introduced during sample processing
27. When performing differential extraction for sexual assault evidence, what is the purpose of the first centrifugation step? → To pellet sperm cells separately from epithelial cells
28. How should Forensic DNA Certification professionals handle procedures that have been updated or revised? → Review updates, complete required training, and implement revised procedures
29. What is the purpose of DNA quantitation in the lab? → Measure DNA amount
30. What is an administrative review in forensic DNA casework? → A review for completeness, consistency, and clerical accuracy of the case record