FCCS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FCCS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the most common cause of hyperphosphatemia in critically ill patients? → Renal failure
2. High-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) therapy can deliver oxygen at flows up to what rate? → 60 L/min
3. What is the recommended frequency of endotracheal tube cuff pressure checks in ventilated patients? → Every shift (every 8–12 hours)
4. What is the first step in the management of a patient suspected of having septic shock? → Starting broad-spectrum antibiotics
5. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), why may serum potassium appear normal or elevated despite total body potassium depletion? → Acidosis shifts potassium from intracellular to extracellular fluid
6. Which IV fluid is considered a balanced crystalloid and is preferred over normal saline to reduce hyperchloremic acidosis? → Lactated Ringer's solution
7. Which ECG change is most characteristic of hypokalemia? → U-waves and flattened T-waves
8. What is the maximum recommended rate of sodium correction in chronic hyponatremia to prevent osmotic demyelination syndrome? → 8–10 mEq/L per 24 hours
9. Which ventilator mode delivers a preset tidal volume regardless of airway resistance? → Volume Control Ventilation
10. Which of the following is the best indicator of tissue perfusion in a critically ill patient? → Lactate level
11. A patient with hyperkalemia (K+ = 6.8 mEq/L) shows peaked T-waves and widened QRS on ECG. What is the FIRST intervention? → Calcium gluconate IV
12. Early enteral nutrition in ICU patients should ideally be started within how many hours of ICU admission? → 24–48 hours
13. What does a PaO2/FiO2 ratio less than 200 indicate? → Severe ARDS
14. The first-line vasopressor for septic shock per Surviving Sepsis Guidelines is: → Norepinephrine
15. Which hand hygiene agent is most effective against Clostridioides difficile spores? → Soap and water (mechanical removal)
16. What does an increasing PaCO2 with rising respiratory rate in a ventilated patient suggest? → Increasing dead space ventilation or worsening respiratory failure
17. What tidal volume is recommended for lung-protective ventilation in ARDS patients? → 6 mL/kg predicted body weight
18. Which isolation precaution is required for a patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis? → Airborne precautions with negative pressure room
19. Which of the following is the primary goal when managing a patient with respiratory failure? → Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation
20. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in managing a patient with a suspected airway obstruction? → Insert an oropharyngeal airway
21. In the management of septic shock, which of the following is the first-line vasopressor recommended for use? → Norepinephrine
22. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three components? → Eye opening, verbal response, motor response
23. Which intervention is considered first-line for non-pharmacologic delirium prevention in the ICU? → Early mobilization, sleep hygiene, and reorientation (ABCDEF bundle)
24. Which benzodiazepine reversal agent should be used cautiously in patients with chronic benzodiazepine use? → Flumazenil
25. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) is CONTRAINDICATED in which condition? → Unprotected airway with inability to protect from aspiration
26. A patient is being resuscitated for septic shock. After 30 mL/kg IV fluid bolus, urine output remains low and CVP is 14 mmHg. What is the best next step? → Reassess fluid responsiveness with a dynamic test before giving more fluids
27. Hypertonic saline and mannitol are used in ICP management primarily because they: → Create an osmotic gradient to draw fluid out of brain tissue
28. Which finding on neurological exam suggests herniation syndrome? → Unilateral dilated, fixed pupil with ipsilateral hemiparesis
29. A patient with hemorrhagic shock has a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and heart rate of 130 bpm. What is the most appropriate initial fluid strategy? → Administer 1–2 L balanced crystalloid bolus
30. The Surviving Sepsis Campaign recommends completing a 30 mL/kg IV crystalloid bolus within how many hours of septic shock? → 3 hours